AILET PG 2020 Previous Question Paper Mock Test Series Batch 2

Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

---

The AILET PG 2020 exam was held in two batches, hence there are two different question papers.

Subscribe to our online mock test and previous paper series for all previous papers with official answer keys.

1) Article 19 (1) (c) provides for the right to
A) Freedom of Speech and Expression
B) To assemble peaceably without arms
C) To form Associations or Unions or Cooperative Societies
D) To form Cooperative Societies

2) How many amendments have been made to the Indian Constitution as on 1st April 2020?
A) 102
B) 103
C) 101
D) 104

3) The allocation seats in the Council of States is provided for by
A) The Representation of People Act, 1950
B) The Representation of People Act, 1951
C) Schedule IV of the Constitution
D) The Election Commission in consultation with the President

4) Which of the following amendment to the Constitution limited the maximum number of Ministers in a Council of Ministers either at the Union or at the States to 15%?
A) Constitution (One Hundredth Amendment) Act, 2015
B) Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act, 2020
C) Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018
D) Constitution (Ninety First Amendment) Act, 2004

5) The Constitutional status for the National Commission for Backward Classes was provided through the:
A) Constitution (One Hundredth Amendment) Act, 2015
B) Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth amendment) Act, 2020
C) Constitution (One Hundred and Second amendment) Act, 2018
D) Legislation enacted under article 4 of the Constitution

6) The total number of Members to be elected from each and every State to the Lok Sabha is provided under:
A) Representation of People Act, 1950
B) Representation of People Act, 1951
C) IV Schedule to the Constitution
D) Election Commission of India

7) The total number of judges in the Supreme Court of India excluding the Chief Justice of India at present is:
A) 29
B) 30
C) 32
D) 33

8) The number of Members in the Legislative Assemblies of each State is prescribed by:
A) Representation of People Act, 1950
B) Representation of People Act, 1951
C) IV Schedule to the Constitution
D) Election Commission of India

9) The Constitution of India provides that until the Legislature of a State by law otherwise provides, the quorum to constitute a meeting of the House shall be:
A) 10 members
B) 1/10 of the total members
C) (A) or (B) whichever is greater
D) 1/6 of the total members

10) The Citizens’ right to vote on the basis of adult suffrage is provided by:
A) Representation of People Act, 1950
B) Representation of People Act, 1951
C) Election Commission of India
D) Under Art. 326 of the Constitution

11) If a State Legislative Assembly passes a Unanimous Resolution ‘Not to divide the state into two, the Parliament may:
A) Enact a law to divide that state into two
B) Request the State to reconsider its Resolution
C) Request the President to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly
D) Request the President to refer the matter to the Supreme Court under Art. 143

12) The system of proportional representation is used in the election of the
A) President
B) Vice President
C) Members of Council of States
D) All of the options

13) Which of the following Judicial Member of the Lok Pal resigned from office recently?
A) Justice Pradip Kumar Mohanty
B) Justice Dilip B Bhosale
C) Justice A. K. Tripathi
D) None

14) Who is not a Judicial Member of the Lok Pal?
A) Justice Pradip Kumar Mohanty
B) Justice Abhilasha Kumar
C) Justice G. Raghuram
D) Justice A. K. Tripathi

15) The term ‘State’ is defined under:
A) Article 12
B) Article 13
C) Article 366
D) Article 37

16) The phrase ‘State Government’ is defined under:
A) Article 168
B) Article 189
C) Article 12
D) None

17) The phrase ‘court of record’ also includes:
A) Admitting evidence
B) Punish for contempt
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None

18) The power to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly is with
A) President
B) Governor
C) Supreme Court
D) Chief Minister

19) The Constitution of India provides for ‘providing complete justice’ in favour of
A) Supreme Court
B) High Courts
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Tribunals

20) The High Court cannot have supervisory jurisdiction under Article 227 on
A) All courts
B) Tribunals
C) Armed Forces Tribunals
D) All of the options are correct

21) President of India can be impeached on the ground of
A) Proved Misbehaviour
B) Incapacity
C) Violation of the Constitution
D) All of the options are correct

22) In accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, the maximum number of times a President can be elected is:
A) Once
B) Two times
C) Three times
D) No limitation

23) The minimum age prescribed under Article 58 of the Constitution for being elected as the President of India is:
A) 30 years
B) 35 years
C) 40 years
D) 50 years

24) The form of Oath or Affirmation by the President is provided under:
A) II Schedule to the Constitution
B) III Schedule to the Constitution
C) Article 60
D) Article 61 of the Constitution

25) The form of Oath or Affirmation by the Governor is provided under:
A) II Schedule to the Constitution
B) III Schedule to the Constitution
C) Article 159
D) Article 161 of the Constitution

26) The Constitution of India provides that the judges of the Supreme Court and High courts can be removed from office on the ground of
A) Misbehaviour
B) Incapacity
C) corruption
D) Both (A) & (B)

27) The Supreme Court of India has related the ‘right to be forgotten’ under
A) Article 14
B) Article 19 (1) (a)
C) Article 21
D) Article 51A

28) The constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly was
A) B. R. Ambedkar
B) B. N. Rau
C) K. M. Munshi
D) Kamat

29) The disqualification of any of the Members of Parliament under Article 102 (1) is vested with
A) Exclusively with the President
B) With the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers
C) With the President on the opinion of the Election Commission
D) With the Election Commission

30) The Supreme Court has observed that the reservation is not a fundamental right in
A) Mukesh Kumar v. State of Uttarakhand
B) Balaji v. State of Mysore
C) M. Nagaraj v. Union of India
D) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India

31) The essence of ‘sedition’ under the Indian Penal Code is
A) Intention
B) Result
C) Both intention and result
D) Benefits gained by the accursed

32) Which of the following provisions IPC deals with the sexual offences against children?
A) Section 372
B) Section 322
C) Section 332
D) Section 123

33) A instigates B to instigate C to murder X. Accordingly X was murdered by C. Apart from C, B is also liable to be punished for his offence with the punishment for murder. What about A?
A) A is not liable to the same punishment
B) A is also liable to the same punishment
C) A is liable only for a lesser punishment
D) A may not be liable to the same punishment

34) Under section 169 of IPC, a public servant who buys or bids for property unlawfully commits a …………………….. and …………….
A) Non-cognizable – bailable
B) Cognizable – bailable
C) Non-cognizable – Non-bailable
D) None of the options are correct

35) Section 498A of IPC deals with an offence that is
A) Bailable, con-compoundable and cognizable
B) Non-bailable, compoundable and cognizable
C) Non-bailable, non-compoundable and cognizable
D) Non-bailable, non-compoundable and non-cognizable

36) Which of the following provisions of IPC was discussed in Naz Foundation (India) Trust v. Government of NCT of Delhi [W.P (civil) No. 4755 of 2001?
A) Section 372
B) Section 373
C) Section 377
D) Section 378

37) Identify the non-homicidal offence in which attempts to enhance punishment was not made as part of legislative expansion of death penalty:
A) Gang-rape of girls below the age of twelve years under Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018.
B) Act of piracy causing death under the Anti-Maritime Piracy Bill, 2019.
C) Acquisition, Possession or carrying of prohibited ammunition without license under the Arms (Amendment) Bill, 2019.
D) Penetrative aggravated sexual assault of children below the age of eighteen years under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (Amendment) Act, 2019.

38) Mr. ‘X’ and Ms. ‘Y’ are employees at the Citywalk Mall. Mr. ‘X’ is employed as a garment technician at one of the chain stores in the mall while Ms. ‘Y’ is the Mall Security officer. Mr. ‘X’ finds out that Ms. ‘Y’ was part of a gang which would fit spy cameras in changing rooms of chain stores and record video of women engaging in private acts. He begins to monitor her activities online with the intention to report the same to police. What is Mr. ‘X’ guilty of?
A) Offence of voyeurism.
B) No offence.
C) Offence of stalking
D) Offence of outraging modesty of a woman.

39) Identify the judgment in which the Supreme Court of India struck down the Per Vaginal (two-finger) test holding it to be unscientific and violative of right to life with dignity.
A) Lillu @ Rajesh v. State of Haryana, AIR 2013 SC 1784
B) Deepak Gulati v. State of Haryana, AIR 2013 SC 2071
C) Prashant Bharti v. State, 2013 (1) SCALE 652
D) Rajesh Patil v. State of Jharkhand, 2013 Cr.L.J 2062 (SC)

40) Which of the following was not held by the Supreme Court of India in relation to S.377 IPC, 1860 in Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India 2018 (10) SCALE 386?
A) S.377 is unconstitutional to the extent that it criminalises consensual sexual conduct between homosexual adults.
B) S.377 subjects the LGBT community as societal pariah and therefore is manifestly arbitrary violating Art.14 of the Constitution of India.
C) S.377 is confined only to the offence of bestiality and non-consensual acts in view of the fact that with the coming into force of the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 and the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 (POCSO Act), the scope of sexual assault has been widened to include non peno-vaginal sexual assault and also criminalize non-consensual sexual acts between children thus bridging the gap in the law governing sexual violence in India.
D) S.377 so far as it penalizes any consensual sexual relationship between heterosexual adults is unconstitutional.

41) Which of the following is not a principle in relation to the offence of Dowry death under the Indian Penal Code?
A) The doctrine of reverse burden is applicable to the offences of dowry death and cruelty by husband or relatives of husband in connection with demand of dowry.
B) The prosecution must establish that cruelty and harassment for and in connection with dowry was made before the death of the woman.
C) There must be existence of a proximate link between the effect of cruelty based on dowry demand and the concerned death.
D) The concept of deeming fiction is applicable to the offence of dowry death and is in contradistinction to the cardinal principles of criminal jurisprudence.

42) During a friendly cricket match, Mr. ‘X’ threw a stump against another player of his team which hit the head of the latter and caused his death. What is Mr. ‘X’ guilty of?
A) Offence of murder.
B) Offence of culpable homicide.
C) Offence of voluntarily causing grievous hurt.
D) Offence of attempt to murder.

43) The publication of the name of a woman below the age of sixteen years against whom an offence of gang rape is alleged to have been committed does not amount to an offence if
A) It is done by the officer-in-charge of the police station making the investigation of the offence for the purposes of such investigation.
B) It is done with the authorization in writing of the victim.
C) It is done where the victim is dead or of unsound mind.
D) It is done with the authorisation of the next of kin of the victim to the Superintendent of Police.

44) Which of the following is true of common intention and common object under the Indian Penal Code?
A) Both common intention and common object are defined under the Indian Penal Code.
B) Common intention requires at least five persons between whom the intention must be shared equally while common object requires a minimum of two persons between whom the object must be shared.
C) Common intention creates a substantive offence whereas common object is a rule of evidence.
D) In common intention, the crucial factor is the participation while in common object, membership in the group is a requisite precondition.

45) Alex takes property belonging to Simon out of Simon’s possession in good faith, believing at the time when he took it, that the property belongs to himself. Later on, realizing his mistake, Alex continues to appropriate the property to his use. Alex has committed the offence of
A) Criminal Misappropriation
B) Theft
C) Criminal breach of trust
D) Cheating

46) Identify the principle which is not connected to the Corporate Criminal Liability jurisprudence in India?
A) A corporation is virtually in the same position as an individual and can be convicted under the common law as well as statutory offences including those requiring mensrea.
B) The criminal liability of a corporation would not arise when an offence is committed in relation to the business of a corporation by a person in control of its affairs.
C) A company can no longer claim immunity from criminal prosecution on the ground that they are incapable of possessing the necessary mensrea for the commission of criminal offences.
D) The doctrine of attribution is applicable not only for acts done by the directors of the company but also for the acts done by the company through the promoters who are controlling the affairs of the company.

47) ‘P’ added potassium cyanide into ‘Z”s drink intending to kill him. However, ‘M’ also happened to sip from ‘Z”s glass. Both “Z” and “M” died. The medical report claimed that ‘Z’ actually died of a cardiac arrest, as the poisonous substance administered was insufficient to cause his death. Besides, ‘M’ died due to the effect of the poison. So:
A) ‘P’ is liable for the death of ‘Z’ and not for the death of ‘M’.
B) ‘P’ is not liable for the death neither of ‘Z’ nor of ‘M’.
C) ‘P’ is liable for the death of both ‘Z’ and ‘M’.
D) ‘P’ is liable for the death of ‘M’ only.

48) Identify the principle which is not applicable in the case of defence of intoxication under the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
A) In the case of voluntary intoxication, Courts must attribute to the intoxicated man the same knowledge as if he was quite sober after gathering it from the attending circumstances of the case paying adequate regard to the degree of intoxication.
B) Voluntary intoxication as a factor can be taken into consideration when a specific intent is an essential element of the alleged offence and the state of intoxication of the accused shows that he was incapable of forming the specific intent required for the commission of the alleged offence.
C) Voluntary intoxication is no excuse for the commission of a crime even if under its influence, the claimant failed to resist the impulse to act in a certain way.
D) Voluntary intoxication is a valid defence in cases where the habitual drunkenness has resulted in a state of mind where the accused is incapable of knowing the nature of the act.

49) Choose the wrong statement from the following procedures under Code of Criminal Procedures, 1973:
A) An accused is not bound to respond to the questions put to him by the judge during the examination under S.313.
B) When an accused is examined as a witness oath must be administered to him.
C) An accused who is sentenced to imprisonment is entitled to a free copy of the judgment immediately after its pronouncement.
D) When the judgment is pronounced the accused need not be present if his personal attendance has been dispensed with and the sentence awarded is imprisonment less than two years.

50) Which of the following are the recommendations in the Malimath Committee Report for victim empowerment? (I) The victim has a right to be represented by an advocate of his choice; provided that an advocate shall be provided at the cost of the State in all cases. (II) The victim, and if he is dead, his legal representative shall have the right to be impleaded as a party in every criminal proceeding where the change is punishable with 7 years imprisonment or more. (III) The victim shall have the right to be heard in matters of granting bail to the accused. (IV) The victim shall have a right to prefer an appeal against any adverse order passed by the court acquitting the accused, convicting for a lesser offence, imposing inadequate sentence, or granting inadequate compensation.
A) I, II and IV.
B) II, III and IV.
C) I, III and IV.
D) I, II and III.

… Subscribe to our online mock tests & previous paper series for the full question paper, with answer key.

Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

---