The AILET PG 2020 exam was held in two batches, hence there are two different question papers.
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1) The Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth amendment) Act, 2020, has extended the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative assemblies from:
A) Fifty to Sixty years
B) Sixty to Seventy years
C) Seventy to Eighty years
D) Forty to Fifty years
2) The total number of judges in the Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice of India at present is:
3) The exchange of certain enclaves between India and Bangladesh along with the conferment of citizenship was carried out through the:
A) Constitution (One Hundredth Amendment) Act, 2015.
B) Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth amendment) Act, 2020.
C) Constitution (One Hundred and Second amendment) Act, 2018.
D) Legislation enacted under article 4 of the Constitution.
4) For the impeachment of the President, a Resolution can be moved only after giving
A) 10 days’ notice
B) 14 days’ notice
C) 7 days’ notice
D) 30 days’ notice
5) How many fundamental duties are there in Part IV A?
6) When can the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament be convened?
A) When a bill is rejected by the other House
B) When Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the bill
C) when more than 6 months have elapsed from the date of the reception of the bill by the other House without the bill being passed by it
D) All of the options
7) A bill pending in the Parliament shall not lapse
A) when the Council of States is prorogued
B) when the House of the People is prorogued
C) when a bill pending in the Council of States which has not been passed by House of People
D) All of the options
8) A Money Bill passed by the House of the People and transmitted to the Council of States, the Council of States:
A) Cannot make any recommendations on the Money Bill
B) Can keep the Bill only during the duration of the session
C) Cannot delay for more than 14 days
D) Cannot delay for more than 30 days
9) Who will decide if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
B) Vice President
D) Finance Minister
10) The minimum number of judges in the Supreme Court required for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 is
11) Who can be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court?
A) Attorney General
B) Comptroller and Auditor General
C) Advocate General
D) Solicitor General
12) Under Article 200 of the Constitution, when a Bill is passed by the State Legislative Assembly and presented to the Governor, the Governor may
A) Assent to the Bill
B) Withhold the Assent
C) Reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President
D) All the options are correct
13) Which provision of the Constitution of India authorises the Parliament to make a law to remove the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
A) Article 262
B) Article 263
C) Article 144
D) Article 147
14) The Interstate Council was established under:
A) Parliamentary Law
B) The Constitution
C) Executive Order
D) Sarkaria Commission recommendation
15) The Constitution of India came into force with effect from 26th January, 1950 based on:
A) Resolution of Constituent Assembly
B) Article 394
C) Order of Governor General
D) Order of President of Constituent Assembly
16) If an amendment to the First Schedule to the Constitution is made to change the name of a State, then the procedure required is:
A) Two thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament
B) Two thirds majority in both Houses and ratification by not less than half of the states
C) Simple majority of both the Houses of Parliament
D) Simple majority in both Houses and ratification by not less than half of the states
17) For the first time in India, one of the Houses of Parliament passed a resolution for the removal of a judge. Who was the judge?
A) Justice V. Ramaswamy
B) Justice Soumitra Sen
C) Justice Dinakaran
D) None of theoptions
18) President can promulgate an Ordinance under Article 123 if,
A) Council of States is adjourned and House of the People is prorogued
B) Council of States is prorogued and House of the People is adjourned
C) Council of States is adjourned and House of the People is dissolved
D) Both Council of States and House of the People are not in session
19) The presidential election can be challenged only in
A) High Court of Delhi
B) Supreme Court
C) Election Commission
D) Special Tribunal
20) The doctrine of eclipse was first used to interpret
A) Article 13 (1)
B) Article 13 (2)
C) Article 13 (3)
D) Article 13 (4)
21) The doctrine of Severability was extended to constitutional amendments as well by the Supreme Court in:
A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
C) Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
D) Kihoto Hollohon v. Zachilhu
22) ‘Proclamation of emergency’ means a proclamation issued under:
A) Article 352
B) Article 356
C) Article 360
D) All of the options are correct
23) The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State shall not exceed ______ of the total number of members in Legislative Assembly.
A) One half
B) One fourth
C) One third
D) No limits
24) The process of ‘Proportional representation’ by means of ‘single transferable vote’ is not used in the election of:
A) Vice President
B) Council of States
C) Legislative Council
25) Paragraph 3 of the X Schedule was omitted by:
A) The Constitution (Fifty Second Amendment) Act, 1985
B) The Constitution (Fifty Eighth Amendment) Act, 1987
C) The Constitution (Ninety First Amendment) Act, 2003
D) The Constitution (Ninety Sixth Amendment) Act, 2011
26) The total number of judges in the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice of India was increased to 34 by:
A) The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018
B) The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019
C) The Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act, 2020
D) The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2019
27) The power to prorogue the House of the People is exercised by:
B) Prime Minister
D) Council of Ministers
28) A Member of Parliament disqualified under the Anti-defection law, is also disqualified to be appointed as a Minister is provided for by:
A) X Schedule
B) Rules of the Houses
D) Constitution (Ninety First) Amendment Act, 2003
29) The Council of State enjoys co-equal power with the House of the People in
A) Constitutional Amendment Bills
B) Introduction of Money Bills
C) Creation of All India Services
D) All of the options are correct
30) The Session of the House of the People is adjourned by:
A) Prime Minister
C) Council of Ministers
31) ‘X’ sells a minor, but a married girl to a brothel keeper. Has ‘X’ committed any offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
A) Trafficking of person.
B) Procuration of a girl by kidnapping or abduction.
C) Selling minor for purposes of prostitution.
D) Both Trafficking and Selling minor for purposes of prostitution.
32) Identify the offence committed in the following situation: Y, a butcher selling beef was threatened in the open market by a group of people that if he bought or sold beef, he would be prosecuted and his living in the municipality would be jeopardized.
C) Intentional insult
D) Criminal intimidation
33) Identify the wrong statements relating to the offence of Waging War against the Government of India under the Indian Penal Code? (I) The expression ‘waging war’ means an act of war and does not include an act of defiance of Government of India in a like manner and by the like means as a foreign country would do. (II) The number of perpetrators and the manner in which they are equipped or armed is material to determine the guilt. (III) The key element in determining the guilt is quo animo of the perpetrators and there is no distinction between principal and accessory. (IV) The object of the gathering must be to obtain by force or violence an object of public or private nature, thereby striking directly against the authority of the State.
A) I, II and III
B) II and III
C) III and IV
D) I, II and IV
34) W is bathing. T pours into the bathwater a solution which he knows is animal urine. Decide the liability of T.
A) T is guilty of assault
B) T is guilty of intentional insult
C) T is guilty of corrupting water
D) T is guilty of criminal force
35) The principle ‘de minimus non curat lex’ means
A) Law would not take action in serious matters.
B) Law does not ignore any act which causes the slightest harm.
C) Law would not take actions on small and trivial matters.
D) Law would take action only if it is proved that harm whether small or large has been sustained by a victim.
36) Which out of the following is not a source of Criminal Law?
C) Local laws
D) Constitution of India
37) Which of the following offences is true of the offence of affray under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
A) The act of affray must be committed by three persons or more done in a public place.
B) The act of affray must necessarily include violence.
C) The act of affray should result in the disturbance of peace and tranquillity of the locality.
D) The act of affray should always be premeditated.
38) Causing the death of a child in the mother’s womb amounts to the offence of
A) Death caused by an act done with the intent to cause miscarriage.
B) Culpable homicide amounting to murder.
C) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt.
D) Attempt to murder.
39) Which of the following offences cannot be made against both moveable and immovable property under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? (I) Extortion (II) Theft (III) Criminal Misappropriation (IV) Dishonestly receiving stolen property
A) I and II
B) I and IV
C) II and III
D) III and IV
40) Which of the following is a principle in relation to the offence of criminal conspiracy under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? (I) When two or more persons agree to commit a crime of conspiracy, then regardless of hatching of any plans for its commission, a crime has been committed by each one who joins in the agreement. (II) All conspirators should agree to the common purpose for the commission of the crime at the same time. (III) The offence of criminal conspiracy is complete the moment when there is an agreement between the parties as to the purpose of the commission of an act and how it is to be accomplished. (IV) Criminal conspiracy is an act of mutual agency for the prosecution of a common plan and confers constructive liability on all the parties for any act done in pursuance of the agreement.
A) I and II
B) I and IV
C) II and III
D) III and IV
41) Which of the following is true on the current death penalty jurisprudence in India?
A) The option to impose a sentence of imprisonment for life cannot be conscientiously exercised having regard to the nature and circumstances of the crime and all the relevant circumstances.
B) The number of death ipso facto will be a relevant aggravating circumstance alone and the mental condition of the accused will be the relevant mitigating circumstance.
C) The discretion in the matter of choosing between the sentences of death and life imprisonment is to be exercised by the judge after balancing all the aggravating and mitigating circumstances of the crime.
D) The circumstances and the manner of committing the crime should be such that it pricks the judicial conscience of the Court to the extent that the only and inevitable conclusion should be awarding death penalty.
42) Identify the offence committed in the following situation: ‘Y’, standing at the gate of a college openly addressed two girls who were strangers to him, in amorous words indicative of illicit sexual relations with them and asked them to come along with him.
A) Intentional insult
B) Criminal intimidation
C) Obscene act
D) Assault to outrage the modesty of a woman
43) The punishment for trafficking of a person is imprisonment for life, which shall mean imprisonment for the remainder of the natural life of that person is applicable when the offender is
A) Public official
B) Police officer
C) Repeated offender
D) Habitual dealer
44) Identify the offence committed in the following situation: While at a supermarket, ‘Z’ removed the label of a cheaper hairbrush and stuck it over the label on the hairbrush she intended to buy, thus hoping to pay less than the true price, She paid the lower price at the pay counter but was apprehended while on her way outside.
A) Criminal Misappropriation of property
45) Which of the following is not a guiding rule when the question of justification of an offence arises either due to a mistake of fact or mistake of law?
A) When an act is in itself criminal and is more severely punishable if certain circumstances co-exist, ignorance of such circumstances is no answer to a charge for the aggravated offence.
B) When an act is prima facie innocent and proper unless certain circumstances co-exist, ignorance of such circumstances is an answer to the charge.
C) When an act which is in itself wrong is, under certain circumstances, criminal, a person who does the wrong act can take up as a defence, ignorance of facts which turned the wrong into a crime.
D) When the character of the act is changed, the mind of the accused should be in absolute ignorance of the circumstances which altered such character of the act.
46) ‘X’, a landlord after repeatedly demanding and not getting the rent of his flat from tenant ‘H’, one day locked the flat in order not to allow ‘H’ to enter it, till he pays off the rent to ‘X’. Which of the following offence has he committed?
A) Wrongful confinement
C) Criminal force
D) Wrongful restraint
47) ‘Y’ gives grave and sudden provocation to ‘M’. ‘M’ on this provocation, fires a pistol at ‘Y’, intending to kill him but, neither intending nor knowing himself to be likely to kill ‘S’, who is near him but out of his sight. The act of ‘M’ results in the immediate death of ‘S’. The liability of the act is on
A) Manu is guilty of culpable homicide.
B) Manu and Yojana are guilty of murder.
C) Yojana is guilty of culpable homicide.
D) Manu and Yojana are guilty of culpable homicide.
48) During a cricket match between ‘ML’ Sports Club and ‘TK’ Sports Club, a heated argument commenced between the captains of the two teams in the municipal park. It ensued into a fight between the two teams causing the bystanders to intervene. What offence has been committed?
B) Public Nuisance
C) Intentional insult with intent to provoke breach of peace
49) Identify the principle which is not applicable in the case of Mens rea under the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
A) Mens rea is not an essential ingredient in cases where the act is not criminal in any real sense but which in the interests of the public has been prohibited and imposed with a penalty.
B) Mens rea is not an essential ingredient in acts amounting to public nuisance.
C) Mens rea is an essential ingredient in cases which although are criminal in form, are in reality, only a summary mode of enforcing a civil right.
D) Mens rea is an essential ingredient except in cases where the implementation of the object of the statute would otherwise be defeated.
50) Identify the offence committed in the following situation: A verbal altercation cropped up between ‘P’ and ‘Q’ during which ‘P’ slapped ‘Q’ on the face. As a result of the slap, ‘Q’ lost the balance of his body and fell hitting his head on the side of a wooden table stationed behind him. ‘Q’ was taken to the hospital immediately where he was kept under observation. Two days later, he left the hospital without the permission of the doctor treating him. A week after he left the hospital, he died due to septicemia (infection on the wounded area).
A) Causing grievous hurt by act endangering human life
B) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt
C) Causing death by rash or negligent act
D) Voluntarily causing hurt
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