AILET PG 2019 Previous Question Paper Mock Test

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‘A’ owes ‘B’ Rs. 3,000, ‘C’ pays to ‘B’ Rs. 2,000 and ‘B’ accepts it in satisfaction of his claim against ‘A’. This payment
(a) is not a discharge of the whole claim
(b) is a discharge of the entire claim
(c) can be a discharge only when the balance is paid
(d) will be a discharge only if the amount is paid by ‘A’

Which one of the following is not an essential feature of a wagering agreement?
(a) Insurable contract
(b) Uncertain event
(c) Mutual chances or gain or loss
(d) Neither party to have control over the event

Clayton’s principle is related to which of the following concepts of the Contract Act?
(a) Appropriation of payments
(b) Performance of reciprocal promises
(c) Void agreements
(d) Capacity to Contract

Consider the following statements :
1. In case of breach of contract generally damages are awarded.
2. In case of breach of contract, remedy of specific performance of contract is always given.
3. In case of breach of contract, fine is also imposed along with the award of damages.
4. In exceptional cases where damages are not adequate compensation, remedy of specific performance can be given.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

Consider the following statements :
The liability of the infant for necessaries supplied to him is :
1. contractual and can be enforced against him.
2. quasi-contractual and the rule is embodied in Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act.
3. limited only to the property of the infant, if any.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) only 2

A minor borrowed some money on a promissory note. After attaining majority, he executed another promissory note in respect of the original loan plus the accrued interest. The creditor filed a suit to recover the money on the basis of the second promissory note. The suit is liable
(a) to be dismissed as the money was not advanced to the minor for necessaries
(b) to be dismissed as the first promissory note being void cannot constitute a valid consideration
(c) to be decreed as the second promissory note was executed when the debtor had become major
(d) to be decreed as the loan given under the first promissory note constitutes past consideration and the past consideration is valid under the Indian law

A takes a loan from B with promise to pay it back within six months. It is also stipulated that on the failure to pay within six months. A will be liable to pay double the amount borrowed
(a) It is in the nature of penalty so only a reasonable rate of interest can be claimed
(b) It is in the nature of liquidated damages, so the stipulated amount can be claimed
(c) It is a valid agreement, so A is liable to pay double the amount borrowed
(d) It is an unconscionable clause and renders the entire agreement void

A trader supplied to a minor wheat and rice required for food. On the failure of the minor to pay for it, the trader files a suit. The trader
(a) will get no relief since minor’s agreements are void
(b) will get no relief since the supplier were not made at the desire of the minor
(c) can recover the price of the goods supplied, as there was an implied promise
(d) is entitled to be reimbursed out of the property of the minor, since the articles supplied constitute necessaries

Sub-agent is responsible for his acts to the agent but not to the principal. Find the correct option with reference to the Contract Act, 1872.
(a) The statement is true and the provision in this regard is there in the Section 192
(b) The statement is false and nothing has been provided under the Act
(c) The statement is partially true and Section 192 does not deal with this
(d) None of the choices

A patient in a lunatic asylum, who is, at intervals, of sound mind, may contract during those intervals. Choose the correct option.
(a) A person in a lunatic asylum cannot enter into any contract
(b) As per Sec. 12, during the intervals when he is of sound mind, he can enter into contract
(c) Though, as per Sec. 12, he may enter into an agreement during the intervals when he is of sound mind, such agreements shall not be enforceable in any court of law
(d) None of the choices

Pritam Kakkar, a famous singer, contracts with Tanisha Entertainment Ltd. (TBL), to sing live at theatre Magnetic Dreams (MD) for two nights in every week during the next two months. TBL engages to pay him 50,000 / – rupees for each night’s performance. On the sixth night, Pritam wilfully absents himself from the theatre. TBL, in consequence, rescinds the contract. Choose the correct option as per the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(a) Pritam Kakkar has breached the contract wilfully. So, he is not entitled for any payment whatsoever
(b) TBL must pay him for the five nights on which he had sung at theatre
(c) Since the contract is for two months, Pritam Kakkar is entitled for the total amount as per the terms of the contract
(d) None of the choices

As per Contract Act, 1872, Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists. Select the answer that corresponds to the order A B C D.

List – I
A. Promises express or implied
B. Coercion
C. Undue Influence
D. Misrepresentation

List – II
i. Sec. 15
ii. Sec. 9
iii. Sec. 18
iv. Sec. 16
(a) ii iii i iv
(b) i iii iv ii
(c) iv iii ii i
(d) ii i iv iii

In case of guarantee, the liability of the surety is
(a) Primary as compare to that of the principal debtor
(b) Secondary as compare to that of the principal debtor
(c) Co-extensive with that of the principal debtor
(d) All of the choices

Between the finder and the owner of the good there is no contract, but
(a) The finder of the goods has the right to sue the owner for compensation for the expenses voluntarily incurred by him to preserve the goods and to find out the owner
(b) The finder can mix goods found by him with his own goods
(c) The finder cannot sell the goods found by him under any circumstances
(d) The finder of the goods is subject to the same responsibility as that of a Bailee

When a contract is made on telephone it becomes complete at the place where acceptance is heard. In which of the following cases it has been held so?
(a) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(b) Bhagwan Das v. Girdhari Lai
(c) Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose
(d) Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram

B is A’s daughter. A and B enter into a contract. A has private information of a change in prices which would affect B’s willingness to proceed with the contract. A did not give this information to B. State whether the contract
(a) Is void but not illegal
(b) Is valid
(c) Is voidable at the option of B
(d) Is void because of being illegal

The two rules (i) General Damages and (ii) Special Damages were propounded for the first time in
(a) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(b) Hadley v. Baxendale
(c) Victoria Laundry Ltd. v. Newman Industries Ltd.
(d) Hobbs v. L. and S. W. Rly

Moses v. Macferlan (1555-1774) is a case relating to
(a) Theory of unjust enrichment
(b) The right of lien
(c) Test of agency
(d) Doctrine of frustration

In Seksaria Cotton Mills Ltd. v. State of Bombay, the Supreme Court described the role of
(a) Auctioneer
(b) Del Credre Agent
(c) Factors
(d) Broker

Find out the correct answer: The object of allowing damages in the case of breach of contract is
(a) To place the plaintiff so far as the money can do it, in the same position with respect to damages as if the contract has been performed
(b) To punish the defendant for breach of contract
(c) To put the plaintiff in the same position as if the contract has not been made
(d) To compensate the actual loss arising from the breach

Article 352 of the Constitution of India relates to proclamation of Emergency. After amendment of this provision, the grounds available to the President for proclaiming emergency are ‘war, external aggression or armed rebellion’. Prior to the Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act of 1978, when could emergency under this provision be declared?
(a) ‘war, external aggression or civil strife’
(b) ‘failure of constitutional machinery’
(c) ‘war, external aggression or internal disturbance’
(d) ‘political or financial instability’

Part XIV-A entitled ‘Tribunals’ was inserted by the Constitution (Forty-Second) Amendment Act, 1976. Clause (2)(d) of Article 323-A and Clause (3)(d) of Article 323-B excluded jurisdiction of all courts, except that of the Supreme Court under Article 136. In which case were these clauses struck down as being unconstitutional to the extent they barred the jurisdiction of the High Courts under Articles 226 / 227 and that of the Supreme Court under Article 32 ?
(a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, AIR 1978 SC 597
(b) Minerva Mills v. Union of India, AIR 1980 SC 1789
(c) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India, AIR 1994 SC 1918
(d) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 1125

In whose presence does the Vice-President of India make and subscribe the oath laid out in Article 69 of the Constitution before entering upon his office ?
(a) Chief Justice of India or in his absence, the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court available
(b) President, or some person appointed by him
(c) Prime Minister or in his absence, the Home Minister
(d) Attorney-General for India or in his absence, the Chief Election Commissioner

Which of the following has not been discussed in Justice K. S. Puttaswamy vs. UOI ?
(a) Cooper and Maneka: Interrelationship between rights
(b) Habermas’s theory of communicative rationality and public sphere
(c) Thomson’s Reductionism
(d) Bork’s critique

According to Article 15(5), inserted by the Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act, 2005, which of the following most correctly describe ‘backward classes’ ?
(a) Socially and educationally backward
(b) Politically and educationally backward
(c) Socially and economically backward
(d) Educationally and economically backward

Article 21A Right to Education mandates the State to provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. Which of the following word (helping verb) has been used by the legislature to show the level of commitment in the opening sentence of Article 21-A ?
(a) May
(b) Shall
(c) Can
(d) None of the choices

The members to be nominated by the President under Article 80 of the Indian Constitution shall consists of persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as the following, namely
(a) Literature, science, politics and social service
(b) Literature, science, art and social service
(c) Literature, science, art and social science
(d) Language, literature, art and social service

Doctrine of Pleasure is associated with which Article of the Constitution ?
(a) Article 323
(b) Article 308
(c) Article 309
(d) Article 310

Who among the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the President of India ?
(a) Nominated Anglo-Indian member of the Lok Sabha
(b) Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha
(c) Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies in the States
(d) Elected members of the Legislative Councils in the States

As per Article 368, an Amendment to which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India requires ratification by at least one-half of the States ?
(a) Seventh Schedule
(b) Fundamental Rights (Part III)
(c) Directive Principles (Part IV)
(d) Fundamental Duties (Part IVA)

The ‘harm principle’ by J. S. Mill has been discussed in which of the following landmark judgments on constitutional question ?
(a) Indian Young Lawyers Association and Ors. v. The State of Kerala
(b) Onkar Lai Bajaj v. Union of India
(c) Navtej Singh Johar and Ors. v. Union of India
(d) Bharat Kumar v. State of Kerala

In which of the following situations does the President of India address a Joint Session of the Parliament ?
(1) At the first session after General Election
(2) At the commencement of the first session of each year
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Neither (1) nor (2)
(d) Both (1) and (2)

Which of the following words is not a part of the Preamble to the Constitution of India ?
(a) Liberty
(b) Freedom
(c) Justice
(d) Equality

Under the Constitution of India, what is the minimum number of judges of the Supreme Court required for hearing and deciding a reference made by the President of India under Article 143 ?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Seven
(d) Nine

Sowmithri Vishnu v. UOI and Yusuf Abdul Aziz v. State of Bombay is pertinent to which of the following decisions of the Supreme Court of India ?
(a) Union of India v. S. B. Vohra
(b) Joseph Shine v. Union of India
(c) Navtej Singh Johar v. UOI
(d) Shayra Bano v. UOI

‘P’ gave her expensive dress to ‘D’, a drycleaner for getting it cleaned, who in turn gave the dress to his worker ‘M’ for the purpose of cleaning. ‘M’ without permission of ‘D’ gave the dress to a lady ‘X’ for wearing on some party. ‘X’ returned the dress to M in a damaged condition. ‘P’ files suit against ‘D’ for her loss.
(a) ‘D’ is not vicariously liable for misappropriation committed by his servants since it is a criminal act for which ‘D’ is not vicariously liable
(b) ‘D’ is not liable because he never authorised ‘M’ to give the dress to ‘X’ and had specifically prohibited him to do so
(c) ‘D’ is vicariously liable since master is liable for all the acts of servant done on the workplace
(d) ‘D’ is vicariously liable since ‘M’ is ‘D’s employee and the dress was entrusted to ‘M’ by ‘D’

In which of the following landmark decisions of Supreme Court, compensation was awarded as per common law principle of trespass to person against a medical professional ?
(a) Spring Meadows Hospital v. Harjol Ahluwalia
(b) Dr. Pinnamaneni Narasimha Rao v. Gundavarau Jayaprakasu
(c) Samira Kohli v. Dr. Prabha Manchanda
(d) Martin F. D’Souza v. Mohd. Ishfaq

Tinu and Pinki, age 10, were playing in the park. During their play, suddenly, Tinu started advancing towards Pinki showing his fist. In order to avoid being hit by Tinu, Pinki stood behind Mohan, a bystander and used him as a shield by keeping Mohan between herself and Tinu. As Tinu closed in, Pinki gently pushed Mohan toward Pinki, hoping Pinki would jump back and give Mohan a chance to escape. Mohan stumbled and fell, suffering an injury. Mohan brings an action against Tinu. Which of the following arguments on Tinu’s behalf has the greatest chance of success ?
(a) Tinu should only be liable for nominal damages for the gentle push but not for damages for Mohan’s injury because he did not intend nor could he foresee such a result
(b) Tinu should not be liable because a child of age 10 cannot form the requisite intent for committing wrong
(c) Tinu should not be liable because a gentle push cannot constitute a battery
(d) Tinu should not be liable because a child on a playground has a privilege to touch a bystander and even to give the person a gentle push

Which of the following cases doesn’t form part of the famous trilogy of House of Lords decisions relied upon in Anns v. London borough of Merton case ?
(a) Home Office v. Dorset Yacht Co. Ltd.
(b) Hedley Byrne and Co. Ltd. v. Heller and Partner Ltd.
(c) Donoghue v. Stevenson
(d) Junior Books Ltd. v. Veitchi Co. Ltd.

The famous case of six carpenters (1610) discussed the concept
(a) Trespass ab initio
(b) Dispossession
(c) Maintenance and champerty
(d) Slander of goods

Which of the following is true about the economic analysis theory ?
I. It doesn’t provide correct cost- benefit analysis of precautions
II. Economic analysis has been replaced by corrective justice theory
III. The theory correctly explains the adversarial nature of tort law
IV. Economic analysis equates legal liability with costs
(a) Both II and III
(b) Both I and III
(c) IV only
(d) II and IV

‘Nuisance’ is interference with a person’s right relating to
(a) Possession
(b) Leave and licence
(c) Use and enjoyment of land
(d) Ownership

In ‘Negligence’, a defendant can take the defence of
(a) Scienti non fit injuria
(b) Voluntary assumption of
(c) Last opportunity
(d) All of the choices

‘Ex turpi causa oritur non actio’ means
(a) Action arises if the act is unlawful
(b) No action arises if the act is unlawful
(c) No action arises if delay in filing action
(d) Action arises if involved directly

‘Defamation’ is an offence under
(a) Section 205, I.P.C.
(b) Section 300, I.P.C.
(c) Section 499, I.P.C.
(d) None of the choices

Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?
(a) Mens Rea – R.v. Prince
(b) Necessity – D.P.P. v. Beard
(c) Insanity – Me Naughten case
(d) Intoxication – Basudev v. State of Pepsu

Even though a man’s knowledge that a particular consequence will probably result from his act is sometimes an insufficient basis for saying that he intends it, there are strong reasons for holding that as a legal matter he can be held to intend something that he knows for sure he is doing. This is called
(a) skewed intent
(b) oblique intent
(c) hypothetical intent
(d) square intent

The punishment for refusing to offer first aid or medical treatment to victims of offences under Section 326A, 376, 376A, 376B, 376C, 376D or Section 376E of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 applies in case of
(a) Public hospitals run by Central Government or State Government or any local body
(b) Private Hospitals
(c) Public hospitals run by Central Government or State Government or any local body and Private hospitals
(d) None of the choices

Is it an indispensable element of dishonesty as defined in Section 24 with Section 23 that the alleged wrongful gain should be intended to be caused to a person who is not legally entitled to the property ?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Depends
(d) None of the choices

In which of the following mens rea has been considered to be an essential element of an offence ?
(a) Srinivasmal Barolia v. Emperor
(b) R. v. Tolson
(c) Nathulal v. State of Madhya Pradesh
(d) All of the choices

Assertion (A): Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence.
Reason (R): Where the aid of the society cannot be obtained, individual may do everything necessary to protect himself.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

The appellant was charged under Section 302 read with Section 34 of the I.P.C. with the murder of a sub-postmaster. Sub-postmaster was counting money in the backroom. Several persons appeared at the door of the office and demanded the post master to give up the money and immediately afterwards fired pistols at him. Postmaster died immediately and the assailants fled in different directions without taking money. One of them was chased and caught with a pistol in his hand. It was not clear as to who fired the fatal shot. While holding the appellant liable for murder the Privy Council laid down the following principles :
(a) ‘Criminal act’ means that unity of criminal behaviour which results in something for which an individual would be liable if it were all done by himself alone, in a criminal offence.
(b) Even if the appellant did nothing as he stood outside the door, in crimes they also serve who only stand and wait.
(c) Section 34 deals with the doing of separate acts, similar or diverse, by several persons; if all are done in furtherance of a common intention, each person is liable for the result of them all, as if he had done them himself, for ‘that act’ in the latter part of the section must include the whole action covered by a ‘criminal act’ in the first part because they refer to it.
(d) Care must be taken not to confuse same or similar intention with the common intention.

The power of the District Superintendent of Police to regulate the volume of music on the roads on the occasion of festivals is provided under
(a) Clause (4) of Section 15-A of the Police Act
(b) Clause (2) of Section 27 of the Police Act
(c) Clause (4) of Section 30 of the Police Act
(d) Clause (3) of Section 16 of the Police Act

In which case the supreme court held that if a student and teacher fall in love with each other, it does not mean that the teacher has taken undue advantage of his official position ?
(a) Geejaganda Somaiah v. State of Karnataka 2007
(b) Sanjay v. State of Maharashtra 2007
(c) Omkar Prasad Verma v. State of Madhya Pradesh 2007
(d) Kailash v. State of Madhya Pradesh 2007

Give correct response. In J. M. Desat v. State of Bombay, A.I.R. 1960 S.C. 889, Mr. Desai was the Managing Director of a Dying Company, the company entered into a contract with the textile Commissioner undertaking to dye a large quantity of cloth. Out of the lot some were returned back to the commissioner by the company while others, even after repeated demand, remained undelivered. Therefore, the Managing Director was charged for an offence and he pleaded that the clothes were eaten up by white ants and that he was not personally responsible for damage done to them and their non-delivery.
(a) In order to punish a person by application of Section 34 mental as well as physical participation was necessary, therefore, in absence of actual physical participation the Managing Director was not liable.
(b) Since the act was not done in furtherance of a common intention, therefore, Managing Director cannot be punished for any offence, in the absence of evidence that the offence was committed with his consent or knowledge.
(c) The Managing Director would be vicariously liable for the offence of criminal misappropriation under Section 409 IPC because he was responsible for supervision and control of the servants of the company who might have caused the loss negligently.
(d) The Managing Director would be liable under Section 409 read with Section 34 I.P.C. because physical presence is not necessary in offences involving diverse acts which may be done at different time and places.

Give the correct response. (Select the correct statement)
(a) Sec. 34 needs active participation while Sec. 149 does not
(b) Sec. 34 does not create specific offence while Sec. 149 does
(c) Sec. 34 speaks of common intention while Sec. 149 speaks of common object
(d) All of the choices

Which of the following matter was approved in Mahender Chawla and Ors. v. Union of India and Ors. ?
(a) Witness Protection Scheme
(b) Victim Protection Scheme
(c) Probation of Offenders Scheme
(d) Child Protection Scheme

Chapter X of Indian Penal code deals with
(a) Offences against the public tranquility
(b) Offences by or relating to public servants
(c) Offences relating to contempt of the lawful authority of public servants
(d) Offences relating to elections

A, in a great fire, pulls down B’s house in order to prevent the conflagration from spreading. He does this without the intention, in good faith, to saving human life or property. In this case
(a) A would be liable because no amount of necessity can justify causing of harm to innocent parties
(b) A would be liable for causing harm day doing mischief to B and will not succeed in his defence of necessity
(c) A would not be liable because he had no intention to cause harm to B’s property but to save it from being damaged by fire
(d) A would not be liable because he has pulled down B’s house in order to prevent the conflagration from spreading i.e. the act was done in good faith for the purpose of avoiding greater harm to person or property: the rule is that causing of lesser evil is justified to avoid greater evil

In the context of the exception of grave and sudden provocation, which of the following is correct ?
(a) Provocation should not be voluntarily provoked by the offender
(b) Lawful exercise of the right of private defence does not give provocation
(c) Lawful exercise of powers by a public servant in obedience to the law does not amount to provocation
(d) All of the choices

A man suddenly murdered his wife and sister in law and he made no attempt to run away. This case
(a) Falls within Sec. 84
(b) Does fall within Sec. 84 because of absence of motive
(c) Does not fall within Sec. 84 because of presence of motive behind the act
(d) Does not fall within Sec. 84 because absence of motive does not imply unsoundness of mind

In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who is sentenced to pay a fine of not exceeding Rs. 100 but exceeding Rs. 50, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not exceed
(a) Two months
(b) Three months
(c) Four months
(d) Six months

Give the incorrect response. Section 90 of I.P.C. lays down that in following cases, consent shall not be a valid consent
(a) Consent given by a person under fear of injury or under a misconception of fact, provided the person doing the act knows or has reason to believe that the consent was given in consequence of such fear or misconception
(b) The consent is given by a person who from unsoundness of mind, or intoxication, is unable to understand the nature and consequence of that to which he gives his consent
(c) If the consent is given by a person who is under 18 years of age
(d) If the consent is given by a person who is under 12 years of age

In case of imprisonment for non-payment of fine, if a part of the fine is paid, such sentence
(a) Shall be reduced proportionately
(b) Shall not be reduced in direct proportion to the fine paid
(c) Shall be reduced but subject to the discretion of the court as to the quantum of reduction
(d) All of the choices

Word Benefit used in Sec. 88, 89 and 90 I.P.C. means
(a) Other benefits then pecuniary benefits
(b) Mere pecuniary benefit
(c) Other as well as pecuniary benefit
(d) None of the choices

X gave poisoned halva to Y with an intention to kill him. Y ate one morsel and kept it on the side Z who was sitting there, picked it up and ate it. Z died
(a) X is guilty of murder of Z
(b) X is guilty of only culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(c) X is not guilty of murder
(d) X is guilty neither of murder nor of culpable homicide as he never intended to kill

Recently, the Hashimpra verdict of the Delhi High Court was in national news. What was the ratio of this decision ?
(a) The fresh trial was ordered
(b) Further investigating was directed
(c) The trial court’s acquittal was reversed to sentence 16 cops to life imprisonment
(d) The case was transferred

Point out the incorrect response. The principle underlying Section 91 of I.P.C. is that consent will only condone the act causing harm to the person giving the consent, which will otherwise be an offence. Acts which are offences independently of any harm which they may cause will not be covered by consent given by the sufferer. Some instances of such acts are
(a) Offences against public safety
(b) Causing miscarriage to a woman
(c) Mischief
(d) Public nuisance

Chapter XX of I.P.C. deals with
(a) Offences related to marriage
(b) Defamation
(c) Offences against property
(d) None of the choices

Y intentionally deceives Z into a belief that Y has performed, Y’s part of a contract made with Z which he has not performed, and thereby dishonestly induces Z to pay money. Y has committed
(a) The offence of theft
(b) The offence of extortion
(c) The offence of cheating
(d) The offence of criminal breach of trust

In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that ‘Doctors cannot be held guilty only because something has gone wrong’ ?
(a) Maniben v. State of Gujrat, AIR 2010 SC 1261
(b) Southern Railway Officer v. Union of India, AIR 2010 SC 1241
(c) Tameswar v. Ramvishal, AIR 2010 SC 1209
(d) Malaya Kumara Ganguly v. Sukumar, AIR 2010 SC 1162

‘The word attempt clearly conveys with it, the idea that if the attempt had succeeded the offence charged would have been committed’. It was stated
(a) Lord Atkin
(b) Chief Justice Cockborn
(c) Chief Justice Ahmadi
(d) None of the choices

How many types of punishment have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code ?
(a) Three
(b) Six
(c) Five
(d) Four

‘Active concealment of fact’ is associated with which one of the following ?
(a) Misrepresentation
(b) Undue influence
(c) Fraud
(d) Mistake

Consider the following statements in respect of criminal conspiracy.
1. There has to be always an agreement to commit an offence.
2. The agreement must be between two or more persons.
3. Unlawful means always be used.
4. The agreement may be for any act prohibited by the law.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 4

Assertion (A) : A person compelled by threats, from another, which reasonably cause apprehension of his instant death, commits murder of the third person, can plead the defence of compulsion.
Reason (R): Consent of the deceased (above 12 years) is a defence to the charge of murder if the act causing death is done in good faith for the benefit of the deceased without intention to kill. Of the above statements.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Where a snake charmer to show his own skill placed a venomous snake on the head of a spectator without the intention to cause harm. Spectator is trying to push of the snake was beaten and died, the snake charmer is guilty
(a) Under clause (1) of Sec. 300
(b) Under clause (3) of Sec. 299
(c) Under clause (1) of Sec. 299
(d) Under clause (2) of Sec. 300

Give the incorrect response. (Select the incorrect statement)
(a) Where there is sufficient time of cooling down, there would be no sudden provocation
(b) Only words of gesture can cause grave provocation
(c) Under exception first of Sec. 300 the provocation must be grave and sudden
(d) Confession of adultery by wife to her husband by wife is grace and sudden provocation

R takes a loan from M on the security of his bike. But when M was away. R took away the vehicle. The loan was not repaid. R is guilty of
(a) No offence as the bike belonged to him
(b) No offence as what he owes is some money that could be repaid
(c) Theft as he takes away the vehicle from the possession of M with dishonest intention
(d) Dishonest misappropriation of property as he had no right to appropriate the property

X, a rich person residing at Kochi, sends Rs. 50,000 to his agent at Chennai with a direction that the money be given equal to two poor students A and B who are studying in the Engineering College over there. Instead of doing so, the agent gives the money equally to two other very poor deserving students. The agent has committed
(a) Criminal breach of trust
(b) No offence
(c) Cheating
(d) Criminal misappropriation

This is the complete previous question paper from AILET PG 2019 for admission to the LLM program of NLU Delhi (National Law University – Delhi). NLU-D does not participate in the CLAT exam and conducts their own entrance exam for both LLB and LLM admissions. The answer key for this paper in included in our AILET PG Online Prep pack.

 

Register on our prep portal and try the free demo mock tests today. The prep pack has all the AILET PG previous question papers + 100 mock tests covering the complete syllabus for the exam.

Which of the following elements constitute criminal misappropriation of property ?
1. Movable property belonging to a person other than the accused.
2. Any property belonging to a person other than the accused.
3. The accused must have misappropriated the property to his own use.
4. There must be dishonest intention on the part of the accused.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3

Theft in dwelling house is described in
(a) Section 378 of I.P.C.
(b) Section 379 of I.P.C.
(c) Section 380 of I.P.C.
(d) None of the choices

Give best response. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea, (act itself does not make a man guilty unless his intentions were so). Thus mens rea means
(a) Expectations in the mind that the bodily motions will lead to certain consequences
(b) Mens rea means the mental state expressly or impliedly mentioned in the definition of the crime charged, which mental state constitutes a necessary requirement of that crime
(c) Mens rea denotes that guilty frame of mind with which an act is done
(d) Mens rea means evil intent or knowledge of the wrongfulness of conduct

Give correct response. In Allen v. Whitehead, the defendant, an occupier and licensee of a refreshment house employed a manager for running the refreshment house. He used to visit it only once or twice a week. He had given express instructions to the manager that no prostitutes were to be allowed to congregate on the premises of the house. The manager, inspite of his instructions to the contrary, allowed some women, whom he knew to be prostitutes, to congregate on the premises. The defendant had no personal knowledge of it. Held that
(a) The defendant was not liable but the manager was liable because the defendant had given express instructions to the manager not to allow prostitutes to congregate on his premises
(b) The defendant was not liable for the offence of allowing prostitutes to congregate on his premises because he had no knowledge about it
(c) The defendant was held vicariously liable for knowingly suffering prostitutes to meet and remain in the refreshment house
(d) None of the choices answer is right

For granting pardon under Section 306 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
(a) The witness must not be directly involved in the offence
(b) The accused should have been given an opportunity to cross examine the person getting pardon
(c) The person getting pardon need not be in police custody
(d) The offence should not be punishable with imprisonment exceeding 10 years

The maximum possible compensation awardable under Section 356 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
(a) Depends on the court in which the case is being tried
(b) Cannot exceed the maximum fine possible fine for the offence
(c) Cannot exceed Rs. 1,00,00,000
(d) Depend upon the discretion of the judge

If the accused is convicted in a criminal case for the offence under an stature which does not provide for an payment of compensation
(a) The Court cannot award compensation under Section 357 of the Cr.P.C. and no civil proceedings are possible
(b) The Court cannot award compensation under Section 357 of the Cr.P.C., but other civil remedies are possible
(c) The Court can award compensation under Section 357 of the Cr.P.C., but the award will be taken account in subsequent civil suits
(d) The Court can award compensation under Section 357 of the Cr.P.C., but the award will not be taken into account in subsequent civil suits

_______ of the Code of Criminal Procedure ,1973 states that compensation payable to the victim under Section 357-A will be in addition to the compensation payable under Section 326-A or 376-D of I.P.C.
(a) Section 357
(b) Section 357 A
(c) Section 357 B
(d) Section 357 C

Section 401 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
I. Allows the Court to convert finding of acquittal into conviction
II. Allows the Court to pardon the pardon
III. Does not allow the Court to act suo motu
IV. Is only applicable to High Court
(a) I and II
(b) II and IV
(c) II, III, IV
(d) I, II, III

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court lay down the guidelines for the premature release of life convict ?
(a) Lanman Naskar v. Union of India
(b) Boucher Pierre Andre v. Superintendent, Central Jail
(c) Kasmer Singh v. State of Haryana
(d) Raghbir Singh v. State of Haryana

The maxim ‘Cogitationis poenam nemo patitur means’
(a) No one suffers punishment for mere intent
(b) Intentions are punishable but not the thoughts
(c) The thoughts as well as intentions of men are punishable
(d) None of the choices

Abhijeet is charged u/s 242 of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860), with ‘having been in possession of counterfeit coin, having known at the time when he became possessed thereof that such coin was counterfeit’, the word ‘fraudulently’ being omitted in the charge. Applying Section 215 Cr. P.C.
(a) If it appears that Abhijeet was in fact misled by this omission, the error shall be regarded as material
(b) If it appears that Abhijeet was deliberately misled by this omission, the error shall be regarded as material
(c) Unless it appears that Abhijeet was in fact misled by this omission, the error shall not be regarded as material
(d) None of the choices

Armaan is charged with cheating Benny, and the manner in which he cheated Benny is not set out in the charge, or is set out incorrectly. Armaan defends himself, calls witnesses and gives his own account of the transaction. What will the Court infer from this while applying Section 215 Cr. P.C. ?
(a) The Court may infer from this that the omission to set out the manner of the cheating is valid
(b) The Court may infer from this that the omission to set out the manner of the cheating is a cognisable offence
(c) The Court may infer from this that the omission to set out the manner of the cheating is not material
(d) None of the choices

What do you mean by pursuit ?
(a) authorising the destruction of corporations for the purpose of engaging in any lawful enterprise, business, pursuit, or occupation, is not restricted in meaning to a scheme for making money, but includes any object consistent with the interest of society
(b) authorising the dissolution of corporations for the purpose of engaging in any lawful enterprise, business, pursuit, or occupation, is not restricted in meaning to a scheme for making money, but includes any object consistent with the interest of society
(c) authorising the formation of corporations for the purpose of engaging in any lawful enterprise, business, pursuit, or occupation, is not restricted in meaning to a scheme for making money, but includes any object consistent with the interest of society
(d) authorising the reconstruction of corporations for the purpose of engaging in any lawful enterprise, business, pursuit, or occupation, is not restricted in meaning to a scheme for making money, but includes any object consistent with the interest of society

Atif is charged with the murder of Khuda Baksh on the 21st January, 1882. In fact, the murdered person’s name was Haidar Baksh, and the date of the murder was the 20th January, 1882. Atif was never charged with any murder but one, and had heard the inquiry before the Magistrate, which referred exclusively to the case of Haidar Baksh. What will the Court infer from this while applying Section 215 Cr. P.C. ?
(a) The Court may infer from these facts that Atif was not misled and that the error in the charge was immaterial
(b) The Court may infer from these facts that Atif was misled and that the error in the charge was immaterial
(c) The Court may infer from these facts that Atif was misled and that the error in the charge was material
(d) None of the choices

Consider the following statement(s): A police officer has the power to arrest any person without an order from a Magistrate or warrant of arrest, if he has reason to suspect his complicity in a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years, provided that he is satisfied for reasons in writing that such arrest is necessary.
(a) To prevent such person from committing any further offence
(b) For proper investigation of the offence
(c) To prevent such person from tampering with or causing the evidence of the offence to disappear
(d) To compel the absconding co-accused to surrender

‘G’, a 17 years old girl, was married to ‘H’. ‘H’ during the subsistence of the said marriage entered into another marriage with ‘P’. The court may take cognizance for the offence of bigamy, if the complaint is brought by
(a) Her father, mother, brother, sister, son or daughter or by her father’s or mother’s brother or sister
(b) Any other person related to her by blood, marriage or adoption, with the leave of the court
(c) Some other person on her behalf, with leave of Court, but where there is a guardian appointed in her respect, then only after such guardian has been heard
(d) All of the choices

Indicate the correct statement regarding the rights of an arrestee. A person arrested without warrant has the right to
I. Be informed of the particulars of the offence for which he is arrested
II. Have a relative or friend named by him to be informed about his arrest
III. Have an advocate of his choice remain present throughout interrogation
IV. Be medically examined by a medical officer Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV

The person seeking suspension of conviction should specifically draw the attention of the Appellate Court to the consequences that may arise if the conviction is not stayed as held by the Supreme Court in
(a) Sheo Prasad Bhor v. State of Assam, AIR 2007 SC 918
(b) P.V. George v. State of Kerala, AIR 2007 SC 1034
(c) Navjot Singh Sidhu v. State of Punjab, AIR 2007 SC 1003
(d) Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India, (2006) 7 SCC 1

Which of the following statements is true ?
(a) a woman can never be arrested after sunset and before sunrise under the provisions of Cr. P.C.
(b) a woman can be arrested after sunset and before sunrise only under exceptional circumstances
(c) a woman can be arrested after sunset and before sunrise only under exceptional circumstances with the prior permission of Judicial Magistrate of first class within whose jurisdiction the offence is committed or the arrest is to be made
(d) None of the choices

‘Plea Bargaining’ a new chapter was added in Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2005 (2 of 2006) is contained in
(a) Sections 265 A to 265 E
(b) Sections 265 A to 265 L
(c) Sections 265 A to 265 M
(d) Sections 265 A to 265 N

The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005 (25 of 2005) came into force on
(a) 22nd June, 2006
(b) 21st June, 2005
(c) 23rd June, 2006
(d) 23rd July, 2006

According to Section 41A(1) of Cr.P.C. as inserted by code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2008 (5 of 2009) and amended in 2010, the Police Officer shall issue a notice directing the alleged accused though he has committed a cognizable offence, to appear before him or such other place as specified in the notice in all the cases where the arrest of the person is not required under the
(a) Provisions of Sub-section (1)(a) of Section 41
(b) Provisions of Sub-section (1)(b) of Section 41
(c) Provision of Sub-section (1)(c) of Section 41
(d) Provision of Sub-section (1) of Section 41

In cases of consecutive sentence on conviction of several offences at one trial by a metropolitan magistrate, the aggregate punishment
(a) Shall not exceed twice the amount of the punishment which the Magistrate is competent to inflict for a single offence
(b) Shall not exceed the amount of the punishment which the Magistrate is competent to inflict for a single offence as prescribed under Section 29 of Cr.P.C.
(c) Shall not exceed three times the amount of punishment which the Magistrate is competent to inflict for a single offence
(d) Shall not exceed 14 years

In a prosecution of an offence punishable under Section 175, I.P.C. for non-compliance / disobedience of the summoned / issued under Section 91 of Cr.P.C.
(a) The accused cannot take the defence that the document(s) / thing to be produced is not necessary or desirable for the investigation inquiry or trial
(b) A accused can take the defence that the documents things ordered to be produced is not necessary or desirable for the investigation or inquiry or trial
(c) The accused cannot question the necessity or the desirability of the documents / thing ordered to be produced for investigation, inquiry or trial
(d) The accused cannot be permitted to take the defence that the documents / things ordered to be produced is not necessary or desirable for the investigation or inquiry or trial, as the necessity or desirability stands at adjudged before the issuance of summon to produce the document / thing

The propositions are
I. Delay and dispatch of FIR is not the circumstance which can throw out prosecution case in its entirety.
II. Delay and despatch of FIR is a circumstance which can throw out the prosecution case in its entirety.
III. The extraordinary delay in sending the FIR is a circumstance which provides a legitimate basis for suspecting that the FIR was recorded much later than the stated date and hour, affording sufficient time to the prosecution to introduce improvement.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the aforesaid preposition ?
(a) I is true, II and III are false
(b) I and III are true but II is false
(c) II and III are true but I is false
(d) III is true, I and II are false

In which case the ‘Constitution of the Family Welfare Committees by the District Legal Services Authorities’ was directed, which was subsequently modified by the Supreme Court ?
(a) Rajesh Sharma
(b) Roshan Lai
(c) Deep Singh
(d) Nathuram

The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 deals with
(a) Claim of maintenance by the Muslim women
(b) Claim of maintenance by the Muslim divorced women
(c) Claim of maintenance by the children of the marriage with said Muslim divorced women
(d) Claim of maintenance by the Muslim divorced women and by the children of the marriage with said Muslim divorced women

In a non bailable offence, triable by Magistrate, application for bail under Section 437 of Cr.P.C. can be moved before the court of
(a) Magistrate competent to try and entertain the case
(b) Chief Judicial Magistrate or Additional Chief Judicial Magistrate
(c) Court of Session
(d) Magistrate competent to try and entertain the case and Court of Session

If an accused is charged of a major offence, but on the facts established he cannot be held guilty of that major offence. At the same time the facts established indicates that the minor offence has been committed, the person so tried for major offence can be convicted for such minor offence. It has been so provided
(a) Under Section 220 of Cr.P.C.
(b) Under Section 223 of Cr.P.C.
(c) Under Section 222 of Cr.P.C.
(d) Under Section 221 of Cr.P.C.

Magistrate has the power under Section 259 of Cr.P.C. to convert a summons trial case into a warrant trial case
(a) relating to any offence irrespective of the punishment prescribed
(b) relating to an offence punishable to the term exceeding 6 months
(c) relating to an offence punishable for a term exceeding 1 year
(d) relating to an offence punishable for a term exceeding 2 years

Which of the following countries have not yet ratified the Paris Climate Agreement, 2016 ?
(a) Russia
(b) United States
(c) India
(d) All of the choices

What is the subject of the recent UN Security Council Resolution 2451 of 21st December, 2018 ?
(a) The situation in the Central African Republic
(b) The situation in Somalia
(c) The situation in the Middle East
(d) Maintenance of international peace and security

Which Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with Prisoners of War ?
(a) 1st
(b) 2nd
(c) 3rd
(d) All of the choices

Which Article of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969 lays down rights and obligations for third parties to the treaty ?
(a) Articles 31-33
(b) Articles 19-23
(c) Articles 34-38
(d) Articles 39-41

In which case was the essential element of International custom, ‘opinio juris’, clarified ?
(a) S. S. Lotus Case (P.C.I.J. 1927)
(b) Legality of the Threat or Use of Nuclear Weapons Case, (I.C.J. Reports, 1996)
(c) Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries case (I.C.J. Reports, 1953)
(d) Asylum case (I.C.J. Reports, 1950)

Which entry in the lists occurring in the VII Schedule to the Indian Constitution mentions ‘Entering into treaties with foreign countries and implementing of treaties, agreements and conventions with foreign countries’ ?
(a) Entry 14, List I
(b) Entry 10, List I
(c) Entry 15, List I
(d) Entry 16, List I

The Constitution of India encourages settlement of international disputes by
(a) Negotiation
(b) Judicial settlement
(c) Mediation
(d) Arbitration

Which of the following cases deal with ‘retroactivity’ of ‘Recognition’ under International Law ?
(a) Luther v. Sagor (1921) 1 KB 456
(b) Arantzazu Mendi (1939) AC 256
(c) Haile Selassie v. Cable and Wireless Ltd (No. 2) (1939) I Ch. 182
(d) Civil Air Transport Inc. v. Central Air Transport Corporation (1953) AC 70

Which body was the predecessor to the present ‘Human Rights Council’ of the United Nations ?
(a) The Commission on Human Rights
(b) UN Human Rights Committee
(c) Economic and Social Council
(d) The Committee on the Elimination of Discrimination against Women

‘2019’ is the International Year of which of the following ?
(a) International Year of Pulses
(b) International Year of Soils
(c) International Year of Indigenous Languages
(d) International Year of Small Island Developing States

In which country is the headquarter of the International Seabed Authority (established under the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea) located ?
(a) Hamburg, Germany
(b) Washington D.C., U.S.A.
(c) London, United Kingdom
(d) Kingston, Jamaica

Which decision of the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea established that the Precautionary Principle is incorporated within the UNCLOS (UN Convention on the Law of the Sea) ?
(a) The ‘Tomimaru’ Case (Japan v. Russian Federation)
(b) Case concerning Land Reclamation by Singapore in and around the Straits of Johor (Malaysia v. Singapore)
(c) Dispute concerning delimitation of the maritime boundary between Bangladesh and Myanmar in the Bay of Bengal (Bangladesh / Myanmar)
(d) Responsibilities and obligations of States sponsoring persons and entities with respect to activities in the Area (Request for Advisory Opinion submitted to the Seabed Disputes Chamber)

In which case, of the International Court of Justice, the concept of counter measures, discussed ?
(a) Legality of the Threat or Use of Nuclear Weapons
(b) Gabcikovo-Nagymaros Project case
(c) Rainbow Warrior case
(d) Serbian Loans case

To what aspect of International Law, is the concept of ‘terra nullius’ applicable ?
(a) Territory under International Law
(b) State Responsibility under International Law
(c) Recognition under International Law
(d) Statehood under International Law

Which international dispute resolution body completed its mandate in 2017 ?
(a) International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda
(b) International Criminal Tribunal for the former Yugoslavia
(c) The Nuremberg Tribunal
(d) International Criminal Court

Practice theory of rules was given by
(a) Eugen Ehrlich
(b) H. L. A. Hart
(c) F. K. Von Savigny
(d) Roscoe Pound

Legal philosopher to whom the statement ‘Discretion is like a hole in a doughnut’ is attributed is
(a) N. Maccormick
(b) Joseph Raz
(c) Ronald Dworkin
(d) R. Alexy

The question ‘should one regard as continuing to be legally valid something which offended against fundamental principles of justice and the rule of law when it was legally valid in terms of the positive law of the legal system which had perished’ was the focal point of the debate between
(a) Hart and Fuller
(b) Hart and Devlin
(c) Hart and Dworkin
(d) Hart and Austin

Pair the following correctly :

Column A
A. Martha Nussbaum
B. John Rawls
C. Robert Nozick
D. Immanuel Kant

Column B
A. Entitlement Theory
B. Categorical Imperative
C. Capabilities Approach
D. Difference Principle
(a) A-C, B-D, C-B, D-A
(b) A-B, B-C, C-D, D-A
(c) A-D, B-C, C-A, D-B
(d) A-C, B-D, C-A, D-B

Lex injusta Non-est Lex was the position held by
(a) St. Thomas Augustine
(b) J. S. Mill
(c) Lon. L. Fuller
(d) Jeremy Bentham

According to Hohfeld’s analysis of rights, the right to transfer one’s property is
(a) Duty and power
(b) Claim and liability
(c) Power and liberty
(d) Liberty only

Trust is an example of
(a) Personal right
(b) Right in re aliena
(c) Right in re propria
(d) Sanctioning right

The proponent of fiction theory of personality was
(a) Gierke
(b) Kelsen
(c) Hohfeld
(d) Savigny

Which of the following theorist considered possession as being constituted by corpus possessionis and animus possidendi ?
(a) Salmond
(b) Holmes
(c) Pollock
(d) Savigny

Justice Holme’s dissent in Lochner v. New York was hailed as the best exposition of
(a) Realist Jurisprudence
(b) Sociological Jurisprudence
(c) Critical legal approach
(d) Postmodern approach

Which is the following feminist tradition accepts the hierarchical ordering of binary divisions in western thought but seeks to reverse sexualisation of the dichotomies ?
(a) Liberal feminists
(b) Radical Feminist
(c) Cultural Feminists
(d) Post-modern feminists

The statement ‘Law is not simply an armed receptacle for values and priorities determined elsewhere; it is part of a complex social totality in which it constitutes as well is constituted, shapes as well as is shaped’ was made by
(a) Hillaire Barnett
(b) R. Epstein
(c) D. Kairys
(d) M. Kramer

The statement ‘the living law is the law which dominates life itself even though it has not been posited in legal propositions’ was made by
(a) Austin Sarat
(b) Jhering
(c) Duguit
(d) Ehrlich

Classify the following thinkers correctly :

Column A
A. Roberto Unger
B. Michel Foucault
C. Karl Llewellyn
D. John Finnis

Column B
A. Critical legal thinker
B. Natural Law thinker
C. Postmodern thinker
D. Legal Realist
(a) A-C, B-D, C-B, D-A
(b) A-D, B-C, C-A, D-B
(c) A-A, B-C, C-D, D-B
(d) A-C, B-D, C-A, D-B

The statement ‘One whose desires and impulses are not his own, has no character, no more than a steam engine has a character’ was made by
(a) Isaiah Berlin
(b) J. S. Mill
(c) Jeremy Bentham
(d) John Locke

‘… law currently locates itself above or separate to the physical realm, in reality the converse is true. Humans are physical beings dependent on, and subject to, their only home and ultimate jurisdiction – Earth.’ This statement captures
(a) Anthropocentrism
(b) Eurocentrism
(c) Ethnocentrism
(d) Ecocentrism

Wolfgang Friedmann described his legal theory as
(a) Positive study of theory of law
(b) Normative study of theory
(c) Technical theory of law
(d) Negative theory of law

Inability to distinguish between duty imposing and power conferring rules was a criticism levelled by
(a) Hans Kelsen against John Austin
(b) Ronald Dworkin against H. L. A. Hart
(c) H. L. A. Hart against John Austin
(d) Roscoe Pound against Hans Kelsen

The expression ‘internal morality of law’ primarily pertains in the first place to
(a) Substantive aims
(b) Procedural requirements
(c) Internal aspect of law
(d) Minimum content of natural law

Grand theorisation, essentialism and limited focus on issues around sex, sexuality and reproduction are criticisms levelled against
(a) Liberal Feminists
(b) Radical Feminists
(c) Marxist Feminists
(d) Post-modern Feminists

‘If we take a view of our friend the bad man we shall find that he does not care two straws for the axioms or deductions, but that he does want to know what the Massachusetts or English courts are likely to do in fact’ is a classic statement made by
(a) W. Twining
(b) Brian Leiter
(c) O. W. Holmes
(d) E. Pashukanis

Who among the following claims law to be an ‘autopoietic system’ ?
(a) Jurgen Habermas
(b) Pierre Bourdieu
(c) David Trubeck
(d) Niklas Luhmann

Which of the following is not a proponent of the critical theory that emerged as a response to the disillusionment with the civil rights movement in the United States of America ?
(a) Karl Renner
(b) Kimberle Crenshaw
(c) M. Matsuda
(d) Richard Delgado

Who among the following is not a Scandinavian realist ?
(a) Axel Hagerstrom
(b) E. A. Hoebel
(c) K. Olivercrona
(d) A. Ross

This is the complete previous question paper from AILET PG 2019 for admission to the LLM program of NLU Delhi (National Law University – Delhi). NLU-D does not participate in the CLAT exam and conducts their own entrance exam for both LLB and LLM admissions. The answer key for this paper in included in our AILET PG Online Prep pack.

Register on our prep portal and try the free demo mock tests today. The prep pack has all the AILET PG previous question papers + 100 mock tests covering the complete syllabus for the exam.

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