UGC NET Law Previous Question Paper Mock Test Nov 2017

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Q. Match the List – I with List – II and indicate the correct answer using the code given below :

List-I
(a) Nijhawan v Nijhawan
(b) Daniel Latifi v Union of India
(c) Husain Ara v Zubaida Begum
(d) Gujarat Woman Workers Association Case

List-II
(i) Dowry
(ii) Uniform civil code
(iii) Cruelty
(iv) Maintenance

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
– (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
– (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
– (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : ‘Option of Puberty’ is an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Hindu Law.
Reason (R) : “Option of Puberty” is not an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Muslim Law.
– Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
– Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
– (A) is correct (R) is false
– (A) is false (R) is correct

Q. The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 brought various grounds for dissolution of marriage based on the principles of :
– Shia Schools
– Hanafi School
– Shafai School
– Maliki School

Q. A Muslim husband has E – mailed Talaq letter writing “I divorce you, I divorce you, I divorce you,” without the signature of witnesses, Talaq will be :
– Valid
– Voidable
– Void
– Neither valid nor void or no talaq

Q. Sec 2(d) of ‘The protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 defines ,”human rights” means the rights relating to __________ of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India. Fill in the blank.
– Life, Liberty, Equality and Dignity
– Life, Equality, Liberty and Dignity
– Life, Equality, Dignity and Liberty
– Life, Liberty, Dignity and Equality

Q. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to National Human Rights Commission of India, under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 ?
– Sec 3……Appointment of chairperson and other members
– Sec 4……Removal of a member of the commission
– Sec 5……Member to act as chairperson in certain times
– Sec 6……Term of office of members

Q. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched with regard to the duration of the position of the members/chairpersons of N.H.R.C of India ?
– Justice S. Rajendra Babu – 02.04.2007 to 31.05.2009
– Justice K.G. Bala Krishnan – 07.06.2010 to 11.05.2015
– Justice Ms.M. Fathima Beevi – 03.11.1993 to 24.01.1997
– Justice V.S. Malimat – 05.08.1994 to 12.10.1998

Q. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the code given below :

List – I
(a) Optional Protocol to the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women
(b) Declaration on the Elimination of violence against women
(c) Convention on the Elimination of All forms of Discrimination against Women
(d) Declaration on the protection of women and children in Emergency and Armed conflict

List – II
(i) Proclaimed by the U.N General Assembly resolution 3318 (XXIX) of 14 December, 1974
(ii) Adopted and opened for signature, ratification and accession by the U.N. General Assembly resolution 34/180 of 18 December, 1979
(iii) Proclaimed by the U.N General Assembly resolution 48/104 of 20 December, 1993
(iv) Adopted by the U.N General Assembly Resolution 54/4 of 6 October, 1999 and opened for signature, ratification and accession on 10 December, 1999

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
– (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
– (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
– (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Q. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect ?
(a) Optional Protocol to the Convention on the Rights of the Child on the involvement of Children in Armed Conflict was adopted and opened for signature, ratification and accession by the United Nations General Assembly resolution 54/263 of 25 May, 2000
(b) Worst forms of Child Labour Convention, 1999 (No.182) was adopted on 15 June, 1999 by the General Conference of the International Labour Organisation at its eighty – seventh session
(c) Minimum Age Convention, 1973 (No. 138) was adopted on 26 August, 1973 by the General Conference of the International Labour Organisation at its Fifty Eighth session
(d) Convention on the Rights of the Child was adopted and opened for signature, ratification and accession by the United Nations General Council Resolution 44/25 of 20 November, 1989
– (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect
– (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect
– (a) and (b) are incorrect
– (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are incorrect

Q. The division of Human Rights into three generations was initially proposed in 1979 by one of the following Czech Jurist at the International Institute of Human Rights in Strasbourg ?
– Karel Vasak
– Charles O. Lee
– Maurice Cranston
– Frederic Bastial

Q. Arrange the following decided cases on the right to health in a chronological order and choose the answer by using the code given below :
(a) Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samiti v. State of West Bengal
(b) Paramananda Katara v. Union of India
(c) Social Jurists v. Govt. of NCT of Delhi
(d) Sahara House v. Union of India
– (b), (a), (c), (d)
– (d), (a), (b), (c)
– (b), (d), (c), (a)
– (c), (d), (a), (b)

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with regard to ‘absolute liability’principle laid down in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India. Answer by using the code below :
(a) The principle was approved except as to quantum of damages in Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India
(b) The principle in determining compensation was applied in Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India
(c) The compensation to be awarded must have some broad correlation not only with magnitude and capacity of the enterprise but also with the harm caused by it was held in Deepak Nitrite v. State of Gujrat.
(d) The principle is not followed in India because Parliament could not pass yet Public Liability Insurance Bill, 1991
– Only (a) is correct
– (a) and (b) are correct
– (a), (b) and (c) are correct
– (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct

Q. Which of the following pair is correctly matched ?
– Defamation published in permanent form – Slander
– Libel is recognized as offence – England
– Truth of defamatory matter is no defence – Civil law
– Action lies for defamatory statement – Absolute Privilege

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using the code below :
Assertion (A) : The existence of a duty to take care is essential before a person can be held liable in negligence.
Reason (R) : The standard of care required is not a matter of law and does vary according to the individuals although it does not vary according to the circumstances.
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
– (A) is right but (R) is wrong
– (A) is wrong but (R) is right

Q. Match List – I with List – II with regard to tort of nuisance and answer by using code below :

List-I
(a) Burden of proof, once nuisance is proved
(b) Remedy for the private nuisance
(c) Right to action for nuisance of a temporary
(d) Right to commit a private nuisance may

List-II
(i) Prescription
(ii) Occupier
(iii) Abatement nature
(iv) Defendant be acquired

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
– (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
– (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
– (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using code below :
Assertion (A) : According to the ‘law of tort’ every wrongful act for which there is no justification or excuse to be treated as a tort.
Reason (R) : Theory of ‘pigeon – hole’ was propounded by Salmond.
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
– (A) is right but (R) is wrong
– (A) is wrong but (R) is right

Q. The provisions of the Consumer Protection Act shall be :
– Only in derogation of other law
– No addition to other law
– Not in addition and in derogation of other law
– In addition to and not in derogation of other law

Q. Section 19 – A of the Consumer Protection Act provides that State and National Commissions shall hear as expeditiously as possible and an endeavour shall be made to finally dispose of the appeal within ninety days from the date of its admission. The Section further empowers the Commissions to make following orders ; answer by using code below :
(a) Ordinarily grant no adjournment unless sufficient cause
(b) To impose costs occasioned by adjournment
(c) Record the reason for delay while disposing of the appeal
(d) Dispose of the appeal ex parte
– (a) and (b) are correct
– (a), (b) and (c) are correct
– (a), (b) and (d) are correct
– (b), (c) and (d) are correct

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using code below :
Assertion (A) : Where a bill is unintentionally cancelled by the holder or his agent and the cancellation is not apparent thereon, the bill is discharged.
Reason (R) : Above principle is laid down in Section 82 of the Negotiable Instruments Act.
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong
– Both (A) and (R) are right
– (A) is right but (R) is wrong
– (A) is wrong but (R) is right

Q. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below :

List – I
(a) Partnership not created by status
(b) Essentials of partnership
(c) Joint Hindu Family and partnership
(d) Partnership between outsiders and joint family

List – II
(i) CST v. K. Kelukutty
(ii) Kshetra Mohan v. Commr. of Excess Profit Tax
(iii) Rakesh Kumar Dinesh Kumar v. U.G. Hotels and Resorts Ltd.
(iv) Ganpat v. Annaji

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
– (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
– (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
– (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Q. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below :

List – I (Duties of partners)
(a) Duty of absolute good faith
(b) Duty not to compete
(c) Duty of due deligence
(d) Duty to indemnify for fraud

List – II (Relevant section under the Indian Partnership Act)
(i) Section 16 (b)
(ii) Sections 12 (b) and 13 (f)
(iii) Section 10
(iv) Section 9

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
– (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
– (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
– (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using code given below :
Assertion (A) : “Goods” means every kind of movable property including actionable claims and money and excludes stock and shares, growing crops, grass and things attached to or forming part of the land which are agreed to be severed before sale or under the contract of sale.
Reason (R) : Above principle is laid down in Section 2 (7) of the Sale of Goods Act.
– Both (A) and (R) are right
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong
– (A) is wrong but, (R) is right
– (A) is right but, (R) is wrong

Q. Which of the following statement is correct ?
– Notwithstanding any express contract the seller of goods is not bound to deliver them until the buyer applies for delivery
– Apart from any express contract, the seller of goods is not bound to deliver them until the buyer applies for delivery
– Apart from any express contract the seller of goods is bound to deliver them until the buyer applies for deliver
– Apart from any express contract, the buyer of goods is bound to deliver them when the seller applies for delivery

Q. Directors are agents of the company. In which of the following cases above principle was laid down. Answer using code given below :
(a) Ferguson v. Wilson
(b) Elkington and Co. v. Harter
(c) Hampshire Land Co, re
(d) Allen v. Hyatt
– Only (a)
– Only (a) and (b)
– Only (a), (b) and (c)
– (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Q. Which of the following case is about doctrine of ultravires ?
– Royal British Bank v.Turquand
– Premier Industrial Bank Ltd. v. Carlton Mfg. Co. Ltd.
– Rajendra Nath Dutta v. Shibendra Nath Mukherjee
– Attorney General v. Great Eastern Railway Co.

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Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

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