UGC NET Law Previous Question Paper Mock Test Nov 2017

UGC NET Law Mock Test, Online Mock Test, UGC NET Law previous year question papers, UGC NET Law syllabus study material practice material
UGC NET Law 2018 - Online Practice Pack - With 100 mock tests & 41 previous question papers
  • 50 Full Length Mock Tests - 100 Questions each - as per the latest 2018 Pattern
  • 50 Mini Mock Tests - 25 Questions each - for quick practice sessions
  • All objective type Previous question Paper III's - June 2012 to Nov 2017 - 13 Question Papers
  • Previous question Paper II's - Dec 2004 to Nov 2017 - 28 Question Papers
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Read this article to read the detailed article about the detailed official UGC Net Law syllabus that has been rolled out from 2018. The UGC Net Law exam is now completely an objective type test, with 100 MCQs in Law Paper II.

The FAQs – Frequently Asked Questions about the UGC NET exam are in this article :  Ugc Net by Cbse – The complete list of faqs.

The best way to prepare for the UGC NET Law exam is to practice as many previous question papers and solve as many mock tests as possible. Register for our free demo mock tests using the link at the top of this article.  All the previous question papers published on LawMint can be practiced as online mock tests in our UGC Net practice course; which also has a database of several thousand MCQs covering the complete UGC Net Law syllabus.

Q. Answer the following by using code given below.
‘Economic Justice’ is one of the objectives of the Constitution of India. It has been provided in
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Duties
– (a) and (b) are correct
– (a) and (c) are correct
– (b) and (c) are correct
– (b), (c) and (d) are correct

Q. Arrange the following decided cases in a chronological order and answer by using the code given below :
(a) Union of India v. N.S. Rathnam and others
(b) Basawaraj v. Special Land Acqisition Officer
(c) Usha Mehta v. Government of A.P
(d) City Industrial Development v. Platinum Entertainment
– (c), (b), (d), (a)
– (b), (c), (d), (a)
– (d), (b), (c), (a)
– (b), (c), (a), (d)

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India under Article 40 states that The State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.
Reason (R) : This directive gives an assurance that every village where maximum people live, has to be made an autonomous republic, self-sufficient, self-sustaining and capable of managing its own affairs.
– Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
– Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
– (A) is true but (R) is false
– (A) is false but (R) is true

Q. Which of the following statements are correct ? Answer by using the code given below.
(a) Persons in Govt/Judicial service need not resign to participate in District Judge selection process held in “Vijay Kumar Misra and another v. High court of Judicature at Patna” by the Supreme Court of India
(b) The Supreme Court of India held in S. Kazi v. Muslim education society that “All Tribunals are not necessary parties to the proceedings where legality of its orders challenged
(c) The Supreme Court of India observed in Cardamom Marketing Corporation and others v. State of Kerala and others that Social Security to the legal profession becomes an essential part of legal system
(d) The Supreme Court of India held in ‘Union of India v. Rajasthan High Court and others that High Court Judges are exempted from Airport frisking.
– Only (b) is correct
– (a), (b) and (c) are correct
– (b), (c) and (d) are correct
– (a), (b) and (d) are correct

Q. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to the provisions of the Constitution of India ?
– Art 118……..Duration of parliament
– Art 119……..Restriction on discussion in Parliament
– Art 120……..Language to be used in Parliament
– Art 121……..courts not to inquire into the Proceedings of Parliament

Q. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below :

List-I (Constitutional Provision)
(a) Article 249
(b) Article 250
(c) Article 252
(d) Article 253

List-II (Subject)
(i) Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more States by consent and adoption of such legislation by any other State
(ii) Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List if a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation
(iii) Legislation for giving effect to international agreements
(iv) Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
– (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
– (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
– (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment Bill ? Give correct answer by using the code given below :
(a) Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional Amendment Bill in Parliament
(b) Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
(c) President is bound to give his assent to the Bill if duly passed by both Houses of Parliament and ratified, if required, by the Legislatures of not less than one – half of the States
(d) President may return the Bill to the Houses for reconsideration
– Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct
– Only (b) and (c) are correct
– Only (b), (c) and (d) are correct
– (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct

Q. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below :

List-I
(a) Article 324(1)
(b) Article 324(2)
(c) Article 324(4)
(d) Article 324(5)

List-II
(i) Composition of Election Commission
(ii) Appointment of Regional Commissioners
(iii) Powers vested in the Election Commission
(iv) Conditions of service and tenure of office of Election Commission

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
– (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
– (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
– (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

Q. Administrative Law as a separate branch of legal discipline, especially in India, came to be recognised in the middle of :
– 17th century
– 18th century
– 19th century
– 20th century

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using code given below :
Assertion (A) : Natural justice is justice of the nature where the lion devours the lamb and the tiger feeds upon the antilope
Reason (R) : Above statement is taken from Union of India V. Tulsiram Patel
– Both (A) and (R) are correct
– (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
– (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect
– Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

Q. In which of the following cases, underwritten quotation is taken from ? “Principles of natural justice must be read into the provision of law”.
– State of U.P. v. Vijay Kumar Tripathi
– P. Satyanarayana v. Land Reforms Tribunal
– I.T.C. v. State of Madras
– Manjula Manjari Devi v. Director of Public Instruction

Q. Match List – I (Name of Principle) with List – II (Related Case) and answer by using the code below :

List – I
(a) Res judicata
(b) Legitimate expectation
(c) Promissory estoppel
(d) Locus standi

List – II
(i) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
(ii) Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(iii) Daryao v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(iv) Monnet Ispat and Energy Ltd. v. Union of India

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
– (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
– (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
– (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Q. Which of the following is a ground for judicially attacking the exercise of administrative discretion ? Answer by using code below :
(a) Ultra vires the law
(b) Mala fide intent
(c) Arbitrariness
(d) Irrelevant considerations
– (a) and (b) are correct
– (b) and (c) are correct
– (a), (b) and (c) are correct
– (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct

Q. Writ of certiorari can be issued to quash actions which are administrative in nature. Above principle was laid down in :
– Indian Rly. Construction Co. Ltd v. Ajay Kumar
– A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
– Union of India v. Bashyan
– Rajesh Kumar v. C.I.T.

Q. Which is the qualification of a judicial member of Lokpal ?
– A member of Parliament
– A member of State Legislature
– A retired High Court judge
– A retired Chief Justice of a High Court

Q. I think adherence to precedent should be the rule and not the exception. This statement is of :
– Keeton
– Blackston
– Cardozo
– Paton

Q. Which one of the following jurists was hostile to the natural law school ?
– Emmanuel Kant
– John Rawls
– Jeremy Benthem
– Stammeler

Q. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below :

List – I
(a) Utilitarian Individualism
(b) Social Utilitarian
(c) Scientific Positivism
(d) Social Engineering

List – II
(i) Pound
(ii) Bentham
(iii) Ihering
(iv) Compte

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
– (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
– (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
– (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Q. Which one of the following sources of law has the basis under Article 141 of the Constitution of India ?
– Supreme legislation
– Subordinate legislation
– Colonial legislation
– Precedent

Q. Which one of the following jurists is not related to Historical school ?
– Savigny
– Ehrlich
– Henry Main
– Hegel

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer using code given below :
Assertion (A) : A legal right is a legally protected interest
Reason (R) : An element of advantage is essential to constitute right
– Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
– Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
– (A) is right but (R) is wrong
– (R) is right but (A) is wrong

Q. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the code given below :

List – I
(a) Inner morality of Law
(b) Minimum content of law
(c) Law with a variable Content
(d) ‘Status to contract’ Theory

List – II
(i) Maine
(ii) Stammler
(iii) Fuller
(iv) Hart

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
– (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
– (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
– (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

Q. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below :

List – I (Theory)
(a) Will Theory
(b) Concession Theory
(c) Declaratory Theory
(d) Command Theory

List – II (Subject)
(i) Legal Person
(ii) Analytical School
(iii) Legal Right
(iv) Precedent

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
– (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
– (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
– (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Q. The Self evident principle of criminal justice is based on :
– Nullum crimen sine lege, nulla poena sine lege
– Perils of his life and liberty on refusal of bail
– Simple Principles based on corrective law
– To avoid purposeless cruelty

Q. What is the basic justification on the law of conspiracy ?
– It does not allow a preventive action because an act of conspiracy is derived when the crime results
– It dispenses the difficult requirement of proximity in attempt
– The momentum justifies punishment
– The object is simply to make of a crime

UGC NET Law 2018 - Online Practice Pack - With 100 mock tests & 41 previous question papers
  • 50 Full Length Mock Tests - 100 Questions each - as per the latest 2018 Pattern
  • 50 Mini Mock Tests - 25 Questions each - for quick practice sessions
  • All objective type Previous question Paper III's - June 2012 to Nov 2017 - 13 Question Papers
  • Previous question Paper II's - Dec 2004 to Nov 2017 - 28 Question Papers
  • Mock tests driven by a database of over 9500 questions
  • All tests can be taken unlimited number of times
  • Your score history for each test is available for review
  • Accessible via Smart-Phone browsers, Laptops and Desktops
  • Immediate access - Login details will be sent via email immediately after purchase
Inclusive of all taxes

Pay through Credit-Debit cards, Net-Banking, UPI or Wallets
We use PayTM gateway for secure payments


UGC NET Law Previous Question Paper Mock Test Nov 2017
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