UGC NET Law Previous Question Paper Mock Test Jun 2012

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Q. The term ‘Hindu’ denotes the person
(i) Professing Hindu Religion
(ii) Professing Buddh, Jain or Sikh Religion
(iii) Who are not professing Muslim, Christian, Parsi or Jew Religion?

In respect of the aforesaid propositions which is correct?
– (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) is incorrect.
– (ii) and (iii) are correct and (i) is incorrect.
– (i) and (iii) are correct and (ii) is incorrect.
– (i), (ii) and (iii) are all correct.

Q. Match the List – I with List – II using the codes given below:

List-I List-II
(a) Void Marriages (i) Section 9
(b) Voidable marriages (ii) Section 11
(c) Divorce (iii) Section 13
(d) Restitution of Conjugal Rights (iv) Section 12
– a-(ii) b-(iv) c-(iii) d-(i)
– a-(iv) b-(iii) c-(ii) d-(i)
– a-(iii) b-(i) c-(ii) d-(iv)
– a-(i) b-(ii) c-(iii) d-(iv)

Q. In which of the following case the Court held that Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act was constitutionally violative of right to Human dignity and privacy?
– Bipin Chandra vs. Prabhavati
– T. Sareetha vs. T. Venkatasubah
– Lachman vs. Meena
– None of the choices

Q. Match the List – I with List – II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I List-II
(a) Pre-Marriage Pregnancy (i) Divorce
(b) Marriage within Prohibited Degree Relationship (ii) Voidable Marriage
(c) Cruelty (iii) Void Marriage
(d) When any spouse without reasonable excuse withdraws from the society of the other (iv) Restitution of Conjugal Rights
– a-(ii) b-(iv) c-(i) d-(iii)
– a-(ii) b-(iii) c-(i) d-(iv)
– a-(iv) b-(ii) c-(iii) d-(i)
– a-(i) b-(ii) c-(iii) d-(iv)

Q. International Women’s Day is celebrated every year on
– 2nd March
– 4th March
– 6th March
– 8th March

Q. Which one of the following is correct according to Art I of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948?
– All human beings are born free and equal in rights.
– All human beings are born free, equal and dignity
– All human beings are equal in dignity and rights.
– All human beings are born free and equal in rights and dignity.

Q. Regional Human Rights Court does not exist in
– Africa
– Europe
– America
– Asia

Q. Which protocol to the European Convention on Human Rights has abolished European Commission of Human Rights?
– Protocol 1
– Protocol 2
– Protocol 3
– Protocol 11

Q. Which one of the following convention has neither interstate communication procedure nor individual communication procedure?
– International Convention on Civil and Political Rights
– International Convention on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
– Convention on the Rights of Child.
– Convention on the Rights of persons with Disabilities.

Q. The term of the office of the Chairperson and Members of the NHRC under Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 is
– 5 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 70 years whichever is earlier.
– 4 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 70 years whichever is earlier.
– 3 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 68 years whichever is earlier.
– 5 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 68 years whichever is earlier.

Q. The Chairperson of National Commission on Minorities shall be deemed member of
– Human Rights Council
– Law Commission of India
– National Human Rights Commission
– International Law Commission

Q. Which one of the following is an ‘actionable’ wrong?
– Injuria sine damnum
– Damnum sine injuria
– Both Injuria sine damnum and Damnum sine injuria
– None of the choices

Q. Which of the following is the gist of tortious liability?
– Legal damages
– Violation of legal right
– Availability of legal duty
– None of the choices

Q. The Rule of Absolute Liability is subject to
– All the exceptions mentioned in the rule of Rylands vs. Fletcher
– Half of the exceptions mentioned in the rule of Rylands vs. Fletcher
– None of the exceptions mentioned in the rule of Rylands vs. Fletcher
– All the exceptions mentioned in rule of M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India

Q. Assertion (A): If a person speaks ill of the business which X is doing, it amounts to defamation.
Reason (R): Slander is actionable per se.
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is true but (R) is false.
– (A) is false but (R) is true.

Q. In res Ipsa Loquitor:
(1) Presumption of negligence is there.
(2) Plaintiff has to bring direct evidence.
(3) Plaintiff is discharged from the duty of proving negligence on the part of the defendant.
(4) Court does not give chance to defendant to avoid his liability.
– (1) and (2) are correct.
– (1), (2) and (4) are correct.
– (1), (2) and (3) are correct.
– (1) and (3) are correct.

Q. Which one of the following statements is true?
– Both public as well as private nuisance are punishable under criminal law.
– Only private nuisance is punishable under criminal law, while there is no punishment for general nuisance.
– Public nuisance is punishable under criminal law while private nuisance is a moral wrong only.
– Public nuisance is punishable under criminal law, while private nuisance under civil law.

Q. For constituting tort of nuisance, there should be
– Unreasonable interference
– Interference should be with the use of enjoyment of land.
– Damage
– All of the choices

Q. Partnership is based on
– Mutual trust
– Mutual benefit
– Mutual interest
– Mutual agency

Q. Which statements are correct?
(i) An undisclosed principal can intervene against express terms.
(ii) An undisclosed principal cannot intervene against express terms.
(iii) An undisclosed principal cannot intervene when he knows that the other party would not have dealt with him.
(iv) An undisclosed principal can intervene when he knows that the other party would not have dealt with him.
– (i) and (ii) are correct.
– (ii) and (iii) are correct.
– (iii) and (iv) are correct.
– (iv) and (i) are correct.

Q. Read the following passage, and match the column:
A negotiable instrument contains a contract and therefore must be supported by consideration. In order to be a holder in due course, the holder must have obtained the instrument before its maturity. An instrument payable on demand is current at least as long as no demand for payment is made. To make a holder in due course, the instrument must be complete and regular. A postdated cheque may not be complete and regular.

Column – P Column – Q
(a) Negotiable instrument (i) Before maturity
(b) Holder in due course (ii) Demand for payment
(c) Currency of instrument (iii) Postdated cheque
(d) Complete and regular (iv) Consideration
– a-(i) b-(iv) c-(ii) d-(iii)
– a-(ii) b-(iii) c-(i) d-(iv)
– a-(iv) b-(i) c-(ii) d-(iii)
– a-(iv) b-(iii) c-(i) d-(ii)

Q. Assertion (A): Every public company shall have at least three and every private company at least two Directors.
Reason (R): Directors are trustees for the company and not for individual shareholders.
– (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not an explanation for (A).
– (A) and (R) are true and (R) is an explanation for (A).
– (A) is true, but (R) is false.
– (R) is true, but (A) is false.

Q. Arrange the following concepts in a sequence in which they appeared. Use the code given below:
(i) Right of an unpaid seller to stop goods in transit.
(ii) Agreement to sell goods.
(iii) Damages for breach of contract of sale of goods.
(iv) Conditions and warranties.
– (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
– (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
– (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
– (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

Q. Which statements are correct?
(i) Partner has a duty of good faith.
(ii) Partner has duty not to compete.
(iii) Partner has duty of due diligence.
(iv) Partner has duty to indemnify for fraud.
– Only (i) is correct.
– Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
– Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
– (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

Q. Match an item in List P with an item in List Q:

List – P List – Q
(a) Removal of Directors by Company Law Board (i) Section 318
(b) Duty of Directors to disclose interest (ii) Sections 299 – 300
(c) Compensation for loss of office of Director (iii) Section 402
(d) Director with unlimited liability (iv) Sections 322 – 323
– a-(iii) b-(ii) c-(i) d-(iv)
– a-(ii) b-(iii) c-(i) d-(iv)
– a-(ii) b-(iii) c-(iv) d-(i)
– a-(ii) b-(i) c-(iii) d-(iv)

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Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

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