UGC NET Law Previous Question Paper Mock Test Jun 2012

UGC NET Law Mock Test, Online Mock Test, UGC NET Law previous year question papers, UGC NET Law syllabus study material practice material
UGC NET Law 2018 - Online Practice Pack - With 100 mock tests & 42 previous question papers
  • 50 Full Length Mock Tests - 100 Questions each - as per the latest 2018 Pattern
  • 50 Mini Mock Tests - 25 Questions each - for quick practice sessions
  • All objective type Previous question Paper III's - June 2012 to Nov 2017 - 13 Question Papers
  • Previous question Paper II's - Dec 2004 to July 2018 - 29 Question Papers
  • Mock tests driven by a database of over 9500 questions
  • All tests can be taken unlimited number of times
  • Your score history for each test is available for review
  • Accessible via Smart-Phone browsers, Laptops and Desktops
  • Immediate access - Course will be activated immediately on purchase
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Read this article to read the detailed article about the detailed official UGC Net Law syllabus that has been rolled out from 2018. The UGC Net Law exam is now completely an objective type test, with 100 MCQs in Law Paper II.

The FAQs – Frequently Asked Questions about the UGC NET exam are in this article :  Ugc Net by Cbse – The complete list of faqs.

The best way to prepare for the UGC NET Law exam is to practice as many previous question papers and solve as many mock tests as possible. Register for our free demo mock tests using the link at the top of this article.  All the previous question papers published on LawMint can be practiced as online mock tests in our UGC Net practice course; which also has a database of several thousand MCQs covering the complete UGC Net Law syllabus.

Q. The new Constitution establishes, indeed a system of Government which is at the most quasi-federal, almost devolutionary in character, a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than the federal state with unitary features said by
– Dr. K.C. Wheare
– Dr. Rajendra Prasad
– Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
– Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Q. In which of the following case it was held that ‘Right to Life does not include Right to Die’?
– Gian Kaur vs. State of Punjab
– Chenna Jagdeshwar vs. State of A.P.
– State of U.P. vs. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia
– Deena vs. Union Bank of India

Q. Assertion (A): An accused person cannot be compelled to give his signature or thumb impression.
Reason (R): An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself.
– (A) is true but (R) is false.
– (A) is false but (R) is true.
– Both (A) and (R) are true.
– Both (A) and (R) are false.

Q. After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People, within how many days it is transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations?
– Thirty days
– Twenty four days
– Sixty days
– Fourteen days

Q. Assertion (A): Directive Principles are not enforceable by any Court.
Reason (R): Directive Principles are more or less fundamental in the governance of the country.
– Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is false but (R) is true.
– (A) is true but (R) is false.

Q. The Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction regarding a dispute between
– A citizen and a State
– The Government of India and one State
– Two States
– The Government of India and one State on one side and one State on the other side

Q. In the Constitution of India, provision relating to the formation of new States can be amended by
– A Parliamentary resolution which should be ratified by majority of State Legislatures.
– A simple majority in each House of Parliament.
– 3/4th majority in the Parliament
– 2/3rd majorities in the each House of Parliament provided they also constitute the majority of total members of each House.

Q. Holding of periodic, free and fair elections by the Election Commission is part of the basic structure of the Constitution as per the following:
– Election Commission of India vs. AIADMK
– S.S. Dhanoa vs. Union of India
– In Gujarat Assembly Election matter
– Sadiq Ali vs. Election Commission of India

Q. Writ of Mandamus cannot be issued, where a fundamental right is infringed by
– A Statute
– A Statutory Order
– An Executive Order
– Private Body

Q. Assertion (A): The principles of natural justice ensure fair hearing.
Reason (R): It requires unbiased judge to decide after hearing all parties.
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a good explanation of (A).
– (A) is true, but (R) is false.
– (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q. Prerogative writs to review an administrative action are:
– Two: Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus.
– Three: Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Prohibition.
– Four: Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Prohibition and Writ of Certiorari and Writ of Quo Warranto.
– Five: Writ of Habeas Corpus, Writ of Mandamus, Writ of Quo warranto, Writ of Certiorari and Writ of Prohibition.

Q. A mandatory procedural requirement for an administrative tribunal must be
– Legal representation
– Cross examination
– Reasoned decision
– All of the the choices

Q. Judicial review of an administrative action means
– Review by the Parliament
– Review by the Government
– Review by the Legislative Assembly
– Review by the Judiciary

Q. Match with the correct answer (Purpose or reason):
Institution of Lokpal and Lokayukta
– Law should be able to control the numerous wide discretionary powers
– Ensure fair hearing
– Evaporate maladministration and corruption to bring good governance
– Check and control abuse of power and executive excesses

Q. Find correct answer:
– Administrative law is a branch of public law and is only a part of Constitutional law. It cannot control the Constitutional law.
– Administrative law is a branch of private law.
– Administrative law is independent to Constitutional law.
– Administrative law is neither the branch of public law nor of private law, but a part of Constitutional law.

Q. Bentham’s definition of law is imperative in nature because
– Law is an assembling of signs.
– Law is declaration of volition conceived or adopted by sovereign in a State.
– Because it is adopted by non-sovereign State.
– Law is an assembling of signs & Law is declaration of volition conceived or adopted by sovereign in a State, both

Q. The term ‘Legal theory’ has been first time used by
– Llewlyne
– Ihring
– Salmond
– W. Friedman

Q. Bracket theory of corporate personality is also known as
– Concession theory
– Symbolist theory
– Fiction theory
– Will theory

Q. ‘A’ says to ‘B’ that he will give a sum of rupees five thousand if ‘B’ marries his daughter, this is
– Vested Right
– Contingent Right
– Primary Right
– Secondary Right

Q. Assertion (A): Kelsen follows Kant in distinguishing between ‘is’ and ‘ought’.
Reason (R): Kelsen is a forerunner of philosophical school.
– Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is true, but (R) is false.
– (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q. The possession is the
– Five point in ownership
– Seven point in ownership
– Nine point in ownership
– Ten point in ownership

Q. Which of the following duties have been included by Austin in the category of ‘absolute duties’?
I. Duties owed to persons indefinitely
II. Self-regarding duties
III. Duties owed to the sovereign
IV. Duties owed to the parents

Select the correct answer
– I, III and IV
– II, III and IV
– I, II and IV
– I, II and III

Q. Which one of the following gets along correctly?
– Trust and co-ownership
– Legal and contingent ownership
– Sole and limited ownership
– Legal and equitable ownership

Q. A person who causes bodily injury to another who is labouring under a disorder, disease or bodily infirmity and thereby accelerates the death of the person. Under which it shall be deemed to have caused his death?
– Explanation I to Section 299
– Explanation I to Section 300
– Explanation II to Section 299
– Explanation II to Section 300

Q. In which provision of Indian Penal Code the definition of ‘valuable security’ is explained?
– Section 29
– Section 30
– Section 31
– Section 13

UGC NET Law 2018 - Online Practice Pack - With 100 mock tests & 42 previous question papers
  • 50 Full Length Mock Tests - 100 Questions each - as per the latest 2018 Pattern
  • 50 Mini Mock Tests - 25 Questions each - for quick practice sessions
  • All objective type Previous question Paper III's - June 2012 to Nov 2017 - 13 Question Papers
  • Previous question Paper II's - Dec 2004 to July 2018 - 29 Question Papers
  • Mock tests driven by a database of over 9500 questions
  • All tests can be taken unlimited number of times
  • Your score history for each test is available for review
  • Accessible via Smart-Phone browsers, Laptops and Desktops
  • Immediate access - Course will be activated immediately on purchase
Inclusive of all taxes

Pay through Credit-Debit cards, Net-Banking, UPI or Wallets
We use PayTM gateway for secure payments


UGC NET Law Previous Question Paper Mock Test Jun 2012
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