UGC NET Law Previous Question Paper Mock Test Jan 2017

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Q. Read the following statements in the light of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 and give correct answer with the help of codes given below :
i. The obligation of husband to maintain his wife is co-extensive with his property.
ii. Sec. 18(2) provides for maintenance and separate residence of wife in some conditions.
iii. Father-in-law’s obligation to maintain widowed-daughter-in-law is a personal obligation.
iv. An unchaste and non-Hindu wife is not entitled to maintenance.
– i and iv are correct, but ii and iii are incorrect.
– ii and iv are correct, but i and iii are incorrect.
– iii and iv are correct, but i and ii are incorrect.
– i and iii are correct, but ii and iv are incorrect.

Q. Which of the following is not a ground of divorce under section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 ?
– 7 years imprisonment to the husband
– Failure of the husband to pay maintenance for the last two years.
– Whereabouts of the husband have not been known for a period of 3 years.
– Failure of the husband to perform, without reasonable cause, his marital obligations for a period of three years.

Q. Which of the following are not available to a Hindu husband as grounds of Judicial Separation ?
Answer with the help of codes given below :
i. Extra marital sex by wife
ii. Conversion of wife to a non-Hindu religion
iii. Wife’s pre-marriage pregnancy
iv. Non consummation of marriage owing to impotence of wife.
– i and ii only
– ii and iii only
– iv and i only
– iii and iv only

Q. Which Article of the U.N. Charter charges the U.N. to promote “Universal respect for, and observance of, human rights and fundamental freedoms for all without distinction as to sex, race, language or religion” ?
– Article 56
– Article 55(c)
– Article 62
– Article 76(c)

Q. Match List – I and List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :

List – I
a. The Commission on Human Rights was established by the Economic and Social Council on
b. The General Assembly created the position of U.N. High Commissioner for Human Rights on
c. The General Assembly adopted Second Optional Protocol to the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights on
d. The Optional Protocol to the International Law on Civil and Political Rights, 1966 came into force on

List – II
i. December 15, 1989
ii. 20 December, 1993
iii. February, 1946
iv. March 23, 1976

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– iii ii i iv
– iv iii ii i
– iii iv ii i
– ii i iv iii

Q. Which of the following pair/pairs is/are not correctly matched ? Give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
i. The World Conference on Human Rights was held at Vienna – Year 1993
ii. International Conference on Human Rights at Tehran was held – Year 1958
iii. First World Conference on Women was held on Beijing in – 1985
iv. International Convention on Elimination of all forms of Racial Discrimination – 1973
– only ii
– i and ii
– ii, iii and iv
– i, ii, iii and iv

Q. Which of the following has commented on the legal significance of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights thus, “The declaration is merely a statement of principles, not a legally binding instrument; but it has become one of the best known international documents, and it has been often referred to in resolutions of the U.N., the Specialised Agencies, regional arrangements and other International Organisations, and in national constitutions; legislation and court decision. It is a beacon light for all mankind even though it has been honoured more often in the breach than in the observance” ?
– Starke
– H. Lauterpacht
– Oppenheim
– Palmer and Perkins

Q. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The Universal Declaration of Human Rights does not define the term ‘Human Rights’. It refers them as “the equal and inalienable rights of all members of the Humanity”.
Reason (R) : The framers of the Indian Constitution were influenced by the concept of Human Rights and guaranteed most of the Human Rights contained in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
– Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
– (A) is wrong, but (R) is true.

Q. To which of the following International Conventions on Human Rights, India has become party to such conventions ? Give correct answer with the help of codes given below :
i. Convention on the Political Rights of Women.
ii. Convention on the Right of the Child.
iii. Convention for the Suppression of the Traffic in Person and of exploitation of the prostitution of others.
iv. Convention on International Recovery of Child Support and Other Forms of Family Maintenance.
– only i
– i and iv only
– i, ii and iii
– i, ii, iii and iv all

Q. Match List – I and List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :

List – I (Provisions of Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993)
i. Removal of a Member of the Commission
ii. Functions of the Commission
iii. Procedure with respect to Armed Forces
iv. Appointment of Chairperson and other Members

List – II (Relevant Sections)
a. Section 12
b. Section 4
c. Section 5
d. Section 19

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– ii iv i iii
– i ii iii iv
– iii i ii iv
– iv iii i ii

Q. In which among the following cases malice becomes relevant to determine a person’s liability in law of torts. Answer by using codes below :
a. Malice may result in aggravation of damages.
b. In torts of decit and conspiracy one of the essential is malice.
c. When act is lawful, intention can be gathered from past circumstances.
d. Causing of personal comfort by lawful means may turn lawful act into a tort.
– a and b
– a and c
– a, b and c
– a, b, c and d

Q. Match List – I (Maxims) with List – II (Cases) and give correct answer by using codes given below :

List – I (Maxims)
a. Damnum sine injuria
b. Injuria sine damno
c. Volenti non fit injuria
d. Res ipsa loquitor

List – II (Cases)
i. Padmavati Vs. Dugganika
ii. Vishnu Datt Vs. Board of Higher Secondary and Intermediate Education, U.P.
iii. Bindra Devi Chauhan Vs. State of H.P.
iv. Bhim Singh Vs. State of Jammu and Kashmir

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– ii iv iii i
– ii iii i iv
– ii iv i iii
– i ii iv iii

Q. In which of following cases originator of defamatory statement will be liable for the damage resulting from repetitive publication by third persons ? Answer by using codes below :
a. He himself authorized repetition.
b. Repetition was the natural and probable consequence of his act.
c. There was immoral obligation on the person in whose presence the slander was made to repeat it.
d. There was moral obligation on the person in whose absence the slander was made to repeat it.
– a and b
– a and c
– a and d
– b and d

Q. Which of the following is true in relation to nuisance ?
– An action for nuisance is actionable per se and no special damage need to be proved.
– It can be committed through the medium of intangible objects.
– It is direct interference with the possession of plaintiff.
– There is no interference with plaintiff’s use or enjoyment of land.

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using codes below :
Assertion (A) : The law takes no cognizance of carelessness in the abstract.
Reason (R) : Cause of action for negligence accrues when damage that is real damage is suffered.
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is right explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not right explanation of (A).
– (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
– (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

Q. Which of the following is not correct in relation to the Consumer Protection Act ?
– It extends to whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
– It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may by notification appoint.
– This Act shall be in addition to and not in derogation of provisions of any other law for the time being in force.
– This Act shall override the provisions of Sale of Goods Act.

Q. What is the period of limitation to file a complaint before the Consumer Dispute Redressal Agencies ?
– Within one year from the date of cause of action.
– Within two years from the date of cause of action.
– Within three years from the date of cause of action.
– No limitation period to file a complaint.

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using codes below :
Assertion (A) : Salary drawn by a partner from the firm for his services rendered to it has been treated different from his right to get an additional amount in the form of salary as his share of the firm’s profit.
Reason (R) : Because R.M. Chidambaram Pillai Vs. Commissioner of Income tax case laid down above principle.
– Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason for (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
– (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
– (R) is right, but (A) is wrong.

Q. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

List – I (Principles of mutual rights and liabilities of partners)
a. Remuneration to a partner in absence of an agreement on this matter
b. Fixation of remuneration by agreement in respect of a partner does not alter his status as a partner
c. Interest on the capital of a partner
d. Action against a partner for balance due to another

List – II (Relevant case-law)
i. Md. Abdul Sattar Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh
ii. Ghisulal Vs. Ghumbirmal
iii. Shelat Brothers Vs. Nanalal Harilal Shelat
iv. Bhagchand Vs. Kaluram @ Moolchand

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– iv ii i iii
– iii i ii iv
– i iii iv ii
– iii i iv ii

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Partner of an erstwhile unregistered partnership firm can bring a suit to enforce a right arising out of a contract falling within the ambit of section 69 of the Indian Partnership Act.
Reason (R) : Because Judgement in case of Loonkaran Sethia Vs. Ivan E. John laid down above judicial principle.
– Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason for (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
– (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
– (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

Q. Which of the following statement is correct according to section 2(9) of the Sale of Goods Act ?
“Mercantile Agent” means a mercantile agent
– having in the usual course of business as such seller authority either to sell goods, or to consign goods for the purpose of sale, or to buy goods, or to distribute money for security of goods.
– having in the customary business as such agent power either to sell goods, or to mortgage goods for purpose of sale.
– having in the customary course of business as such agent authority to sell goods.
– having in the normal course of business as such agent authority to confine goods or to raise goods for purpose of the security of money.

Q. Which of the following statements are correct. Answer using the codes given below :
a. Ascertainment of goods for sale is done by buyer.
b. Appropriation of goods for sale is done by seller.
c. Distinction between ascertainment of goods and appropriation of goods that former involves “the element of common intention between buyer and seller”, whereas later can be a unilateral act by buyer.
d. Property in goods does not pass to buyer till appropriation.
– only a, c and d are correct.
– only b is correct.
– only d is correct.
– only c is correct.

Q. Which of the following are presumptions as to a negotiable instrument under section 118 of the Negotiable Instruments Act ? Answer using codes given below :
a. Presumption of contractual capacity
b. Presumption of consideration
c. Presumption of maturity of instrument
d. Presumption of date
– only a and c
– only b and d
– only a and d
– only a and b

Q. Which of the following statement is correct ? Answer using codes given below :
a. Doctrine of indoor management apply in case of knowledge of irregularity in company.
b. Doctrine of indoor management does not apply in case of suspicion of irregularity.
c. Doctrine of indoor management apply in case of forgery.
d. Doctrine of indoor management does not apply if the act of an officer of a company is one which would ordinarily be beyond the powers of such an officer.
– only a is correct.
– only b is correct.
– only c is correct.
– only d is correct.

Q. Find answer by using codes given below : Director may be removed by
a. Other Directors
b. Creditors
c. Central Government
d. Shareholders in a general meeting
– only a and b are correct.
– only b and c are correct.
– only c and d are correct.
– only d and a are correct.

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Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

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