UGC NET Law Previous Question Paper Mock Test Jan 2017

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Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using the codes given below choose the appropriate answer.
Assertion (A) : The apprehension of use of criminal force must emanate from the gesture of a person to attract punishment.
Reason (R) : Mere advancing with a threatening attitude will not amount to criminal force.
– Both (A) and (R) are contradictory to each other.
– (A) is correct while (R) is not the cause of it.
– (A) is incorrect while (R) is appropriate.
– (A) is correct while (R) is the cause of it.

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using the codes given below write the correct answer.
Assertion (A) : In a case of attempt to rape there must be an indecent assault or action with any resistance from the victim.
Reason (R) : There was some action which shows that he was going to have sexual connection with her.
– (R) is correct explanation of (A) and both (A) and (R) are complementary to each other.
– (A) is correct but (R) is not complementary to (A).
– (A) and (R) have no legal standing in view of change of burden of proof.
– (R) is essential to formulate (A) otherwise there may not be a crime.

Q. Which of the factors fall under the limits within which the right of private defence should be exercised ?
– Where there is time to have recourse to the protection of the public authorities.
– When a public servant performs an act in good faith.
– An act committed strictly in conformity with law.
– Where the act was irregular and outside the scope of power.

Q. Dacoity with murder creates co-extensive responsibility of each participant because
– Collective liability is the core-essence whether it was culminated suddenly or not.
– Mere non-participation in dacoity will not exempt from criminal liability since there was pre-concert.
– Planning was to commit only dacoity, but another person, for earlier enemity, abetted to commit murder while there was no common object.
– There must be one or more participants for the constructive action by each member.

Q. What offence, if any, has been committed by a married woman giving free consent to her own abduction ?
– Abetting her own abduction
– Criminal conspiracy for abduction
– No criminal liability against her as the acts was not committed in deceitful manner.
– Attempt to abduction when there was failure to obtain clear consent.

Q. A young man waves a currency note of rupees one thousand in front of a woman as if he offers the money for an indecent favour from the woman, he may be criminally booked under
– Section 506 of IPC
– Section 507 of IPC
– Section 508 of IPC
– Section 509 of IPC

Q. One of the following International Convention is not related to wild life conservation. Give the correct answer :
– Convention on International Trade In Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora.
– Convention on Environmental Impact Assessment in Transboundary Context.
– Convention on Migratory Species of Wild Animals.
– Convention on International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.

Q. The Montreal Protocol is related to
– Transboundary Air pollution
– Ozone Layer
– Climate change
– Hazardous waste

Q. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Over 200 central and state statutes which have at least some concern with environmental protection, either directly or indirectly have unfortunately not resulted in preventing environmental degradation, on the contrary has increased over the years.
Reason (R) : Unless the Government policy is backed by adequate budgetary allocation, changes to the statutory regime and a bureaucratic will, the government’s intention are apt to remain on paper.
– Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
– (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.

Q. Match List – I and List – II and find correct answer by using codes given below :

List – I
a. Public Liability
b. Sustainable Development
c. Wild life protection
d. Hazardous waste material

List – II
i. State of Bihar V. Murad Ali Khan
ii. M.C. Metha and Another V. Union of India and Others
iii. Research Foundation for Science V. Union of India and Others
iv. Narmada Bachao Andolan V. Union of India

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– i iii iv ii
– ii iv i iii
– ii iii iv i
– iv ii iii i

Q. Give correct answer by using codes given below : The Environmental approach has led the Supreme Court to derive, adopt and apply a range of principles to guide the development of environmental jurisprudence. Notable amongst the fundamental norms recognised by the court are
a. Every person enjoys the right to a wholesome environment, which is a facet of the right to life guaranteed under Art. 21 of the Constitution.
b. Enforcement agencies are under an obligation to strictly enforce environmental laws.
c. Government agencies may not plead non-availability of funds, inadequacy of staff or other insufficiencies to justify the non-performance of their obligations under environmental laws.
d. Stringent action ought to be taken against contumacious defaulters and persons who carry on industrial or development activity for profit without regard to environmental laws.
– only a and b
– only a, b and c
– a, b, c and d
– only a

Q. In which of the following case the Supreme Court after referring to International Covenant of Civil and Political Rights and Universal Declaration of Human Rights observed that, “It is almost an accepted proposition of law that rule of customary international law which are not contrary to the Municipal Law shall deemed to be incorporated in the domestic law” ?
– M.C. Mehta V. Union of India
– Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra V. State of U.P.
– P.U.C.L. V. Union of India
– Church of God (Full Gospels) in India V. K.K.R. Majestic Colony Welfare Association

Q. Which one of the following is correct ?
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1981 was enacted
– by the Parliament under Art 252 (1) of the Constitution after securing enabling resolution from the States.
– by the Parliament invoking the power under Art 253 to make laws implementing decisions taken at International Conferences.
– by the states, as the executive functions under the Air Act are carried out by the State Pollution Control Board.
– by the Parliament based on the directions given by the Supreme Court.

Q. Which of the following pair/pairs is/are correctly matched ? Give correct answer by using the codes given below :
i. J.G. Starke – An Introduction to International Law
ii. Hackworth – Digest of International Law
iii. J.L. Brierly – The Changing Structure of International Law.
iv. W. Friedman – The Basis of Obligation in International Law.
– only ii
– i and ii both
– i, ii and iii
– i, ii, iii and iv

Q. In which of the following cases the International Court of Justice pointed out that when in regard to any matter or practice, two states follow it repeatedly for a long time, it becomes a binding customary rule ?
– West Rand Central Gold Mining Company Ltd., V. R. Case
– South West Africa Case
– Right of Passage over Indian Territory Case (Portugal V. India)
– North Sea Continental Shelf Case

Q. In International law a good example of the application of the principle sovereignty is the “Theory of Auto Limitation”. According to this theory, states follow International law because they have by their consent reduced their powers. This principle is based on the principle of state sovereignty. The chief exponent of this principle was
– only Anzilotti
– Anzilotti and Triepel both
– Salmond
– Max Huber

Q. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect ? Give correct answer by using the codes given below :
I. “Subjugation” is a mode of ‘acquisition’ of Nationality under the International Law.
II. Stock V. The Public Trustee is a case related to Double Nationality.
III. Articles 3 to 6 of the Hague Convention of 1930 provide the provisions for solving the problem of Double Nationality of married women.
IV. “Cession” is a mode of ‘Loss’ of Nationality under the International Law.
– only II is incorrect.
– I, II and III are incorrect.
– II, III and IV are incorrect.
– I, II, III and IV all are incorrect.

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The General Assembly is one of the principal organ of the United Nations which consists of all the members of United Nations.
Reason (R) : The Resolutions or Declaration of the General Assembly are not binding upon the States. They are merely recommendations.
– Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are correct individually, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
– (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.

Q. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists :

List – I (Jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice)
i. Case decided under contentious jurisdiction
ii. Under Advisory Jurisdiction
iii. Courts’ competence in respect of determination of its own jurisdiction
iv. Transferred Jurisdiction

List – II (Cases decided)
a. Nicaragua V. United States of America
b. North Sea Continental Shelf Case
c. Western Sahara Case
d. Anglo-Iranian Oil Company Case

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– iv i ii iii
– i ii iii iv
– ii iii iv i
– iii iv i ii

Q. Which of the following pair/pairs is/are not correctly matched ? Give correct answer by using the codes given below :
i. Composition of the Security Council of U.N. – Article 23 of the U.N. Charter
ii. Composition of the Economic and Social Council – Article 61 of the U.N. Charter
iii. Composition of the General Assembly of the United Nations – Article 86 of the U.N. Charter
iv. Composition of Trusteeship Council – Article 28 of the U.N. Charter
– only iv
– iii and iv both
– i, ii and iii
– i, ii, iii and iv all

Q. Match List – I and List – II and find correct answer by using the codes given below :

List – I (Case Law)
a. Saroj Rani V/s. Sudarshan Kumar
b. Jorden Diengdeh V/s. S.S. Chopra
c. Russel V/s. Russel
d. Shastri V/s. Muldas

List – II (Decision)
i. Uniform Civil Code
ii. Meaning of Hindu
iii. Constitutionality of Section 9 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
iv. Meaning of Cruelty

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– ii iii i iv
– iv ii iii i
– iii i iv ii
– i iv iii ii

Q. A marriage solemnized between any two Hindus who are Sapindas of each other shall be
– Valid, if the custom or usage governing any of them permits a marriage between the two.
– Valid, if the custom or usage governing each of them permits a marriage between the two.
– Voidable, if the custom or usage governing each of them permits a marriage between the two.
– Void, if the custom or usage governing each of them permits a marriage between the two.

Q. Read the following and give correct answer with the help of codes given below : A married Hindu female can adopt a child
i. Only with the consent of her husband.
ii. In case of void marriage, consent of husband is necessary.
iii. In case of voidable marriage, consent of husband is not necessary.
iv. If husband has converted to Muslim religion, his consent is not necessary.
– i and iv are correct, but ii and iii are incorrect.
– i, iii and iv are correct, but ii is incorrect.
– ii and iv are correct, but i and iii are incorrect.
– iv and ii are correct, but iii and i are incorrect.

Q. Which of the following is not a ground of divorce available to wife under section 13(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
– Pre-Act bigamy of the husband
– Repudiation of marriage
– Cruelty by the husband
– Husband is guilty of rape, sodomy and bestiality

Q. Read the following statements and give correct answer with the help of codes given below :
i. A Muslim woman can marry a Kitabi.
ii. A Shia male can contract ‘Muta’ with a fire worshipper.
iii. Marriage of a Muslim woman with a Hindu would be irregular.
iv. A Muslim man cannot marry with his niece.
– i and ii are correct, but iii and iv are incorrect.
– ii and iii are correct, but i and iv are incorrect.
– iii and iv are correct, but i and ii are incorrect.
– ii and iv are correct, but i and iii are incorrect.

Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

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