UGC NET Law Previous Question Paper Mock Test Jan 2017

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Read this article to read the detailed article about the detailed official UGC Net Law syllabus that has been rolled out from 2018. The UGC Net Law exam is now completely an objective type test, with 100 MCQs in Law Paper II.

Note : The syllabus for the UGC NET papers 1 & 2 has been changed since Jan 2019.

The FAQs – Frequently Asked Questions about the UGC NET exam are in this article :  Ugc Net by Cbse – The complete list of faqs.

The best way to prepare for the UGC NET Law exam is to practice as many previous question papers and solve as many mock tests as possible. Register for our free demo mock tests using the link at the top of this article.  All the previous question papers published on LawMint can be practiced as online mock tests in our UGC Net practice course; which also has a database of several thousand MCQs covering the complete UGC Net Law syllabus.

Q. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using codes given below the lists :

List – I
a. Kesavananda Bharati V. State of Kerala
b. Indira Nehru Gandhi V. Raj Narain
c. Minerva Mills V. Union of India
d. I.R. Coelh
– ii iii iv i
– ii iv i iii
– iv i ii iii
– iii iv ii i

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : A State made law on any matter of Concurrent List prevails not withstanding any repugnancy with an earlier law made by the Parliament.
Reason (R) : The Parliament can make a law, on any matter in the Concurrent List that prevails over any repugnant state law.
– (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is false, but (R) is true.
– (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The President of India has a right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India on a question of law or fact has arisen or likely to arise, which is of such nature and of such public importance.
Reason (R) : The Constitution of India makes it obligatory for the President to accept the advice rendered by the Supreme Court of India.
– (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is true, but (R) is false.
– (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using codes given below the lists :

List – I
a. Art 136
b. Art 134
c. Art 131
d. Art 130

List – II
i. Appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court in regard to criminal matters.
ii. Seat of Supreme Court
iii. Special leave to appeal jurisdiction of the Supreme court over any court or administrative tribunal.
iv. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– iv i iii ii
– i iii iv ii
– ii iv i iii
– iii i iv ii

Q. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using codes given below the lists :

List – I
a. Art 221
b. Art 222
c. Art 223
d. Art 224

List – II
i. Transfer of a Judge from one High Court to another
ii. Appointment of acting Chief Justice of a High Court
iii. Appointment of additional and acting Judges of the High Court.
iv. Salaries etc of High Court Judges

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– iv i ii iii
– ii iv i iii
– iii iv ii i
– iii i iv ii

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : An accused person is guaranteed under the Constitution of India the right to be informed of the nature and cause of his accusation.
Reason (R) : The accused person has to be produced before the nearest District Judge within twenty four hours.
– (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is false, but (R) is true.
– (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Subject to anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this article.
Reason (R) : Above statement is Article 368(1) of the Indian Constitution.
– Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
– (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
– (R) is wrong, but (A) is right.

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : No person to be eligible for election in, or to claim to be included in a special electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex.
Reason (R) : Above statement is title of Article 325 of the Indian Constitution.
– Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason for (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
– (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
– (R) is wrong, but (A) is right.

Q. Discretion, when applied to a court of justice, means sound discretion guided by law. It must be governed by rule, not by humour; it must not be arbitrary, vague and fanciful but legal and regular. This observation was made in
– Union of India V. Kuldeep Singh
– Reliance Airport Developers (P) Ltd. V. Airports Authority of India.
– Maneka Gandhi V. Union of India
– National Insurance Co. Ltd V. Keshav Bahadur

Q. Under which of the following condition(s) a writ of mandamus can be granted ? Give correct answer by using the codes
a. There must be a public duty.
b. There must be a specific demand and refusal.
c. There must be a clear right to enforce the duty.
d. The right must be subsisting on the date of the petition.
– All a, b, c and d are correct.
– Only a, b and c are correct.
– Only a and c are correct.
– Only a and b are correct.

Q. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court made it explicit that ‘even when the authority has statutory power to take action without hearing, it would be arbitrary to take action without hearing and, thus, violative of Article 14 of the Constitution’ ?
– A.K. Kraipak V. Union of India
– Union of India V. Satish Chandra
– A.K. Roy V. State of Punjab
– H.L. Trehan V. Union of India

Q. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

List – I
a. Personal bias
b. Pecuniary bias
c. Subject-matter bias
d. Departmental bias

List – II
i. Jeejeebhoy V. Collector
ii. Krishna Bus Service (P) Ltd. V. State of Haryana
iii. Manak Lal V. Dr. Prem Chand
iv. G. Nageswara Rao V. A.P.S.R.T.C.

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– i ii iii iv
– iii i iv ii
– iii ii iv i
– iv i ii iii

Q. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : A writ of prohibition can be issued on the same grounds on which the writ of certiorari can be issued except in case of an error of law apparent on the face of the record.
Reason (R) : A writ of certiorari is issued at a stage when proceedings are in progress, to forbid the authority from continuing the proceedings whereas a writ of prohibition is issued at a stage when the authority has given a final decision, to quash the decision.
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
– (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

Q. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

List – I (Subject)
a. The composition of Lokpal
b. Establishment of Lokayukta
c. Term of office of Chairperson and Members of Lokpal
d. Removal of Chairperson and Members of Lokpal

List – II (Provision of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013)
i. Section 3(2)
ii. Section 6
iii. Section 37
iv. Section 63

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– i ii iii iv
– i iv ii iii
– ii iii i iv
– i ii iv iii

Q. The appointment of Chairperson of Lokpal shall be made by the President after obtaining the recommendation of a selection committee consisting of
– The Prime Minister; The Speaker of the House of the People and the Chief Justice of India.
– The Prime Minister; The Speaker of the House of the People; The leader of opposition in the House of the people.
– The Prime Minister; The Leader of opposition in the House of the People and one eminent jurist to be nominated by the President.
– The Prime Minister; The Speaker of the House of the People, The Leader of opposition in the House of the People, The Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him and one eminent jurist to be nominated by the President.

Q. Law is not only a set of rules but is a method or technique for harmonizing conflicting interests. This statement is of
– Auguste Comte
– Herbert Spencer
– Roscoe Pound
– Leon Duguit

Q. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :

List – I (Meaning)
a. Jurisprudence is a science of just and unjust.
b. Jurisprudence is the science of the first principle of civil law.
c. Jurisprudence is the philosophical aspect of knowledge of law.
d. Jurisprudence is in truth no more a formal science than physiology.

List – II (Jurists associated with)
i. Salmond
ii. Gray
iii. Ulpian
iv. Cicero

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– i ii iii iv
– iii i iv ii
– ii iii i iv
– iii iv ii i

Q. Which one of the following requisites is not necessary to be fulfilled for a custom to be valid and operative as a source of law ?
– Reasonableness
– Conformity with statute law
– Immemorial antiquity
– May not have been practiced continuously

Q. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :

List – I (Theory)
a. Inner Morality
b. Concept of living law
c. Organic concept of society
d. Gradual and organic process

List – II (Jurist Associated with)
i. Compte
ii. Fuller
iii. Burke
iv. Ehrlich

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– ii iv i iii
– iii iv i ii
– ii iii iv i
– i ii iii iv

Q. If ‘A’ leaves his car with the driver, the driver’s possession will be
– Immediate whereas that of ‘A’ would be mediate.
– Mediate whereas that of ‘A’ would be immediate.
– Incorporeal whereas that of ‘A’ would be corporeal.
– Corporeal whereas that of ‘A’ would be incorporeal.

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The legislature can forge a sledge-hammer capable of cracking open the corporate shell.
Reason (R) : Corporate personality cannot be used as a shield to harm national interest.
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is true, but (R) is false.
– (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The most important power of an owner is the right to exclude others.
Reason (R) : The owner may grant to another many of his rights and yet remain owner.
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is true, but (R) is false.
– (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q. Law is a social engineering to remove the existing imbalance and to further the progress, serving the needs of the Socialist Democratic Bharat under the rule of Law. This was the observation of Justice K. Ramaswami in
– Delhi Transport Corp. V. D.T.C. Mazdoor Congress
– Indra Sawhney V. Union of India
– State of Karnataka V. Appa Balu Ingale
– Parmanand Kataria V. Union of India

Q. In which of the crimes retributive theory strikes the moral blameworthiness of the offender to punish him ?
– Clamping prohibitory orders
– Sexual harassment at workplace
– Wilful attempt to defame
– Common intention to commit riot

Q. In which of the circumstances the defence of necessity involves a collusion of interest and the consequential judgement of values ?
– Stealing to avert hungers
– Absolute necessity for self-preservation
– Private homicide for keeping up the honour
– Acts done against anarchy

Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

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