UGC NET Law Previous Question Paper Mock Test Dec 2015

UGC NET Law Mock Test, Online Mock Test, UGC NET Law previous year question papers, UGC NET Law syllabus study material practice material
UGC NET Law 2018 - Online Practice Pack - With 100 mock tests & 41 previous question papers
  • 50 Full Length Mock Tests - 100 Questions each - as per the latest 2018 Pattern
  • 50 Mini Mock Tests - 25 Questions each - for quick practice sessions
  • All objective type Previous question Paper III's - June 2012 to Nov 2017 - 13 Question Papers
  • Previous question Paper II's - Dec 2004 to Nov 2017 - 28 Question Papers
  • Mock tests driven by a database of over 9500 questions
  • All tests can be taken unlimited number of times
  • Your score history for each test is available for review
  • Accessible via Smart-Phone browsers, Laptops and Desktops
  • Immediate access - Login details will be sent via email immediately after purchase
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Read this article to read the detailed article about the detailed official UGC Net Law syllabus that has been rolled out from 2018. The UGC Net Law exam is now completely an objective type test, with 100 MCQs in Law Paper II.

The FAQs – Frequently Asked Questions about the UGC NET exam are in this article :  Ugc Net by Cbse – The complete list of faqs.

The best way to prepare for the UGC NET Law exam is to practice as many previous question papers and solve as many mock tests as possible. Register for our free demo mock tests using the link at the top of this article.  All the previous question papers published on LawMint can be practiced as online mock tests in our UGC Net practice course; which also has a database of several thousand MCQs covering the complete UGC Net Law syllabus.

Q. Match List – I and List – II and find correct answer by using codes given below :

List – I
(a) To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
(b) Mandamus cannot be sought against an individual who does not observe a fundamental
– (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
– (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
– (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
– (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Q. Match List – I with List – II according to the provisions of the Constitution of India. Give correct answer by using the codes given below :

List – I (Provisions)
(a) Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the state list in the national interest
(b) Legislation for giving effect to international agreements
(c) Power of Parliament to provide for the establishment of certain additional courts
(d) Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more states by consent

List – II (Articles)
(i) Article 253
(ii) Article 247
(iii) Article 252
(iv) Article 249

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : (a) (b) (c) (d)
– (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
– (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
– (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
– (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The rule making power of the Supreme Court of India is not subject to any law made by the Parliament.
Reason (R) :Only an impartial and independent judiciary can protect the rights of Individual without fear or favour.
– Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
– Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
– (A) is false but (R) is true
– (A) is true but (R) is false

Q. Who among the following shall be disqualified as a member of either House of Parliament ? Give answer by selecting codes given below :
(a) Who is not a citizen of India.
(b) Who has acquired the citizenship of a foreign state.
(c) Who is under any acknowledgement to a foreign state.
(d) Who is under acknowledgement of adherence to a foreign state.
– Only (a)
– Only (a) and (b)
– (a), (b) and (c)
– (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Q. Under Article 324 of the Constitution the Election Commission of India shall be responsible to conduct elections to :

Give answers by using the codes given below :
(a) Parliament and State Legislature
(b) President and Vice – President
(c) Zilla Parishad and Panchayats
(d) Municipal Corporations and Municipal Committees
– (a), (b), (c) and (d)
– (a) and (b) only
– (a), (b) and (c)
– (a), (c) and (d)

Q. Who among the following can establish additional court for better administration of any existing law with respect to a matter concerned in union list :
– Chief Justice of India
– Parliament
– The Concerned State Legislature
– High Court of the State Concerned

Q. Which one of the following statements is correct ? Article 368 of the Constitution of India lays down :
– Procedure for amendment of the constitution only.
– Power of parliament to amend the constitution only.
– Power of parliament to amend the constitution and procedure therefore.
– Limitation on the power of the parliament to amend the constitution.

Q. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court held that, ‘No election can be challenged on the ground of defect in electoral rolls’ ?
– Inderjit Barua Vs. Election Commission of India
– N.P. Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer
– Kalyan Lal Omar Vs. R.K. Trivedi
– Mohinder Singh Gill Vs. Chief Election Commissioner

Q. Who defined administrative law as; “Law relating to the Administration. It determines the organisation, powers and duties of administrative authorities” ?
– Sir Ivor Jennings
– A.V. Dicey
– Kenneth Culp Davis
– Griffith and Strut

Q. What was specifically declared by the Supreme Court in the Delhi Laws Act case ? Answer using codes given below :
(a) Legislature should not delegate its essential function.
(b) Excessive delegation of powers can be struck down by courts.
(c) Extension of laws with certain modification and by changing the underlying policy of legislation is allowed.
(d) Legislature should itself lay down standard in the delegating Act learning the delegate with the power to make rules to execute the policy laid down in the Legislation
– (c), (a), (d)
– (c), (d), (a)
– (d), (c), (b)
– (a), (b), (d)

Q. Which of the following is not true regarding the application of ‘doctrine of promissory estoppel ‘ ?
– The court may refuse to apply promissory estoppel against the government if the ‘public interest’ suffers in fulfilling the promise.
– The government cannot be compelled to carry out a promise which falls outside its power and contrary to law.
– The promise in question may be tentative or uncertain and it need not to be unambiguous and unequivocal.
– There can be no promissory estoppel against the Legislature in the exercise of its legislative functions.

Q. Match List – I with List – II in the light of cases decided by the Supreme Court :

List – I (Case Law)
(a) Canara Bank Vs. V.K. Awasthy (2005)
(b) Gullapalli Nageswara Rao Vs. A.P. State Road Transport Corporation, 1959
(c) Swadeshi Cotton Mills Vs. Union of India (1981)
(d) A.K. Kraipak Vs. Union of India (1970)

List – II (Principles)
(i) Duty to act fairly – in administrative functions as well
(ii) Post decisional hearing
(iii) Exclusion of rule of hearing
(iv) One who decides must hear

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : (a) (b) (c) (d)
– (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
– (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
– (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
– (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : A High Court may decline to exercise its extra – ordinary jurisdiction under Article 226 and dismiss the writ summarily or in limine.
Reason (R) :It would be proper for the High Court to dispose of the petition summarily or in limine, when no important question of law are raised in a writ petition.
– Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason of (A)
– Both (A) and (R) are right but (R) is not correct reason of (A)
– (A) is right but (R) is wrong
– (A) is wrong but (R) is right

Q. When a writ is issued to a public authority in respect of any type of administrative, legislative, Quasi-judicial or judicial functions, it is called a writ of :
– Mandamus
– Quo – warranto
– Certiorari
– Prohibition

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : In judicial review of administrative actions, generally the court would not interfere with the merits of the case by embarking upon inquiry into the facts.
Reason (R) :Courts can review the procedure through which a decision has been taken by the administrative authority but courts cannot supplement its own decision and act as appellate court over the administrative authority.
– Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
– Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
– (A) is right but (R) is wrong
– (A) is wrong but (R) is right

Q. The polemical version of legal realism has wielded enormous influence on the entire judicial system. Who propounded such philosophy ?
– Gray
– Holmes
– Salmond
– Waismann

Q. The liberam arbitrium of the courts depends upon what is right, justice, equitable or reasonable and is dependent upon :
– Evidence and demonstration of public
– Arguments submitted with reason
– Discovering the right or justice of the matter
– Pure intellectual process

Q. Obitor dicta has no binding authority but it helps to :
– Rationalise legal sanctions
– Encourages providing solution to future litigations
– It allows greater prestige to the judge
– It makes the acceptability of precedents more flexible

Q. The statement “equitable ownership of a legal right is different from the ownership of an equitable right” shows that law and equity differ with regard to :
– Only the existence of right
– Only the ownership of rights
– Both existence and ownership of rights
– The existence of a right but not regarding the consistency of a right

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The relation of morality to a concept of law cannot be stated simply in the form of a stark alternative that the former is either externally or internally related to the later.
Reason (R) :It is depending upon time-frame of reference
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong
– Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason of (A)
– (A) is wrong and (R) is right
– (A) is right and (R) is wrong

Q. The House of Lords upheld the Attorney General’s political discretion in refusing to invoke the law in face of a threatened criminal offence in deliberate defiance of an Act of Parliament, in the case of :
– Gouriet Vs. Union of Post Office Workers
– Francome Vs. Mirror Group Newspaper Ltd.
– R. Vs. Bourne
– Johnson Vs. Phillips

Q. Modern doctrine of binding-ness of precedents was first laid down in :
– London Transways Co. Vs. LCC
– Young Vs. Bristol Aeroplane Co. Ltd.
– Mirehouse Vs. Rennel
– Sirros Vs. Moore

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Shareholders are not, in the eye of law, part owners of a company. The company is something different from the totality of the shareholders.
Reason (R) :Shareholders are collective owners of the company.
– Both (R) and (A) are right and (R) is correct reason of (A)
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong
– (A) is right, but (R) is wrong
– (R) is right, but (A) is wrong

Q. An idea of inducement by exciting hope or desire on the other is known as __________.
– Seduction
– Enticing
– Inciting
– Abduction

Q. A takes his own suit from the tailor without his knowledge but had the intention of returning it to the tailor later. What offence, if any has been committed by A ?
– Stealing
– Dishonest taking
– Theft
– Unlawful retention

UGC NET Law 2018 - Online Practice Pack - With 100 mock tests & 41 previous question papers
  • 50 Full Length Mock Tests - 100 Questions each - as per the latest 2018 Pattern
  • 50 Mini Mock Tests - 25 Questions each - for quick practice sessions
  • All objective type Previous question Paper III's - June 2012 to Nov 2017 - 13 Question Papers
  • Previous question Paper II's - Dec 2004 to Nov 2017 - 28 Question Papers
  • Mock tests driven by a database of over 9500 questions
  • All tests can be taken unlimited number of times
  • Your score history for each test is available for review
  • Accessible via Smart-Phone browsers, Laptops and Desktops
  • Immediate access - Login details will be sent via email immediately after purchase
Inclusive of all taxes

Pay through Credit-Debit cards, Net-Banking, UPI or Wallets
We use PayTM gateway for secure payments


UGC NET Law Previous Question Paper Mock Test Dec 2015
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