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Q. A Hindu mother can be natural guardian of her minor child during the life of father of the child if he is not taking due care of the child. This was held by the Supreme court of India in case of
– M.M. Ganguli Vs. Jayanti Ganguli
– Jijabai Vs. Pathan Khan
– Sarla Mudgil Vs. Union of India
– Githa Hariharan Vs. Reserve Bank of India
Q. Match List – I with List – II in the light of Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I
a. Imprisonment of Husband
b. Option of puberty
c. Husband missing
d. Impotency of husband
List – II
i. Sec. 2(vii)
ii. Sec. 2(iii)
iii. Sec. 2(v)
iv. Sec. 2(i)
Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– ii i iv iii
– i ii iii iv
– iv ii i iii
– iii i ii iv
Q. Which of the following has not yet been statutorily recognized as a theory of divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
– Fault Theory
– Will Theory
– Breakdown Theory
– Mutual Consent Theory
Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Human Rights are regarded as those fundamental but alienable rights which are preferred for life as human being.
Reason (R) : Change is general rule of life. Therefore legislatures are free to change human rights according to changing needs and circumstances.
– Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason for (A).
– Both(A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not correct reason for (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
– (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
Q. Which of the following statements are wrong ? Answer using codes :
i. Human rights are created by legislation.
ii. Legal duty to protect human rights is not duty to respect them.
iii. International concern with human rights as enshrined in the Untied Nations Charter is a modern innovation.
iv. A human right violation is now conceived as violation of those personally and directly aggrieved, but not of everyone.
– i, ii
– ii, iii
– iii, iv
– i, ii, iii and iv
Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The purpose of the United Nation is to maintain national security and peace.
Reason (R) : Because Article – I of the Charter of the United Nations says so.
– Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason for (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
– (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
– (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
Q. Right to nationality, right to marry and to found a family are the rights under
i. Only women rights
ii. Social and cultural rights
iii. Civil and political rights
iv. Inherent rights
– i, ii and iv
– ii, iii and iv
– ii and iii
– iii
Q. Which of the following court normally is/are notified by the State Governments to act as Human Rights Court for speedy trial of offences violating Human Rights?
i. Munsiff Courts
ii. Lok Adalats
iii. Senior Civil Judge Court
iv. Sessions Court
– i and iv
– i, iii and iv
– ii and iv
– iv
Q. The power of ‘enquiry and investigation’ was given to Human Rights Commission under the following sections of the protection of Human Rights Act 1993
i. Sec. 13
ii. Sec. 14
iii. Sec. 9
iv. Sec. 10
– i and ii
– i and iii
– ii and iii
– iii and iv
Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : A refugee means any person who, owing to well-founded fear of being prosecuted for reason of race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social group or political opinion, is outside the country of his nationality.
Reason (R) : Because the United Nations Convention on the Refugees 1951 in its Article 1A says so.
– Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason of (A).
– (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
– (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
– Both(R) and (A) are wrong.
Q. Match the List – I (Name of Maxim) with List – II (Meaning of Maxim) by using the codes given below :
List – I
a. Scienti non fit injuria
b. Qui facit per alium facit per se
c. Ubi jus ibi remedium
d. Ubi remedium ibi jus
List – II
i. Where there is remedy there is a right
ii. He who does an act through another is deemed in law to do it himself.
iii. No injury is done to one who knowingly does an act
iv. Where there is wrong there is remedy
Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– iii iv i ii
– iv iii ii i
– iii ii iv i
– i ii iii iv
Q. Which of the following is an effective defence in the tort of nuisance ?
I. Public good
II. Prescription
III. Statutory authority
IV. Reasonable care
– I and III are correct.
– II and IV are correct.
– II and III are correct.
– I and IV are correct.
Q. Assertion (A) : Negligence as a tort is the breach of legal duty to take care which results in damage.
Reason (R) : In the tort of negligence law takes cognizance of carelessness only if it is supported by the legal duty to care.
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is true, but (R) is false.
– (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q. In the tort of slander it is essential that some special damage has been resulted from the use of word by the defendant. In which of the following case an action of slander may be maintained, without proof of special damage ? Answer using the codes :
I. Words imputing criminal offence to the plaintiff.
II. Words imputing to the plaintiff that he has an infectious disease.
III. Words prejudice the plaintiff in his office, profession etc.
IV. Words imputing un-chastity to a woman.
– I and II are correct.
– I, II and III are correct.
– I, II and IV are correct.
– I, II, III and IV are correct.
Q. Which of the following is not an exception to the strict liability principle laid down in Rylands Vs. Flecher ?
– Independent contractor
– Statutory authority
– Act of God
– Consent of the plaintiff
Q. Which of the following is the right of the consumer under Consumer Protection Act, 1986 ?
I. Right to consumer education
II. Right to seek redressal
III. Access to a variety of goods and services at competitive prices
IV. Take goods and services free of cost
– I and III are correct.
– I, II and III are correct.
– I and II are correct.
– I, II, III and IV are correct.
Q. What is the pecuniary jurisdiction of the State Commission under the Consumer Protection Act ?
– Exceeds rupees fifty lakhs but does not exceed rupees one crore.
– Exceeds rupees twenty lakhs but does not exceed rupees one crore.
– Exceeds rupees ten lakhs but does not exceed rupees one crore.
– Exceeds rupees one crore.
Q. According to Section 12 of the Partnership Act, any difference arising as to ordinary matters connected with the business of partnership may be decided by
– the senior most partner
– an arbitrator
– a majority of partners
– a judge
Q. Which are essentials of a contract of sale of goods ? Answer using codes given below :
i. Offer
ii. Acceptance of offer
iii. Exchange of goods for money
iv. Transfer of property in goods from seller to buyer
– Only i and ii
– Only iii and iv
– Only ii and iii
– i, ii, iii and iv
Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes below :
Assertion (A) : Where under a contract of sale the property in the goods has passed to the buyer and the buyer wrongfully neglects to pay for the goods according to the terms of the contract, the buyer may sue the seller for the price of the goods.
Reason (R) : The seller is entitled to get the contractual price.
– Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is correct reason for (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
– (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
– (R) is wrong, but (A) is right.
Q. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I
i. Intention of parties to pass property in goods
ii. Ascertainment of intention to pass property in goods
iii. Passing of property in goods
iv. Specific goods in deliverable State
List – II
a. Ghasiram Vs. State
b. Badriprasad Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh
c. United Breweries Ltd. Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh
d. Usha Beltron Ltd. Vs. State of Punjab
Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : i ii iii iv
– b d a c
– c a b d
– a c d b
– c a d b
Q. Which one statement is correct from the following statements :
– If the contract is inconsistent with the public documents, the person contracting will not be prejudiced by irregularities that may be set the outdoor working of the company.
– If the contract is consistent with the public documents, the person contracting will not be prejudiced by irregularities that may be set the indoor working of the company.
– The doctrine of indoor management seeks to protect the company against the outsider.
– The doctrine of ultra vires seeks to protect the outsider against internal irregularities of the company.
Q. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I
i. Directors with unlimited liability.
ii. Prevention of management of a company by undesirable persons.
iii. A director cannot assign his office in favour of any one else.
iv. Appointment to a place of profit under the company.
List – II
a. Section 202 and 203 of the Companies Act
b. Section 312 of the Companies Act.
c. Section 322 and 323 of the Companies Act.
d. Section 314 of the Companies Act
Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : i ii iii iv
– a c b d
– c a b d
– c a d b
– b d a c
Q. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I
i. Inchoate stamped instrument
ii. Liability of acceptor of a negotiable instrument
iii. Liability of an endorser
iv. Liability of the drawee of a cheque
List – II
a. Union Bank of India Vs. Ankur Corp.
b. Section 31 of the Negotiable Instrument Act
c. Section 35 of the Negotiable Instrument Act.
d. Section 20 of the Negotiable Instrument Act.
Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : i ii iii iv
– a d c b
– d a c b
– d a b c
– c b a d
Q. Which of the following statements are correct? Answer using codes given below :
In order that a person can be called a holder in due course, he must show :
i. that he is the drawer of the negotiable instrument.
ii. that he has obtained it without consideration.
iii. that he has obtained it before the maturity of the negotiable instrument.
iv. that he has obtained the negotiable instrument in good faith.
– i and ii are correct.
– ii and iii are correct.
– iii and iv are correct.
– i and iv are correct.
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- Latest Pattern Mock Tests including comprehension based questions
- Previous Question Papers with Answer Keys - From 2004 till the most recent exam
- 75 Full Length Mock Tests - New Pattern Paper II, with 100 questions each
- 50 Mini Practice Mock tests - with 25 questions each
- Unlimited Practice - New Questions in every attempt of all mocks
- Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
- Database of over 11000+ MCQs covering the entire syllabus
- Unlimited access and practice for one year from the date of purchase
- Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers and Desktops
Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :
I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain
I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi
I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi
A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo
"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani
"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda
"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z
"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty