UGC NET Law Previous Question Paper Mock Test Dec 2014

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"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

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"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

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Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below find the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : The gist of conspiracy lies in forming the scheme between two or more persons to perform the overt act.
Reason (R) : The alleged agreement must provide circumstantial evidence about the participation by all to establish conspiracy.
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
– (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q. Which of these facts do not constitute the degree of knowledge for holding a person to be criminally liable for adducing false evidence ?
– A statement known to be false.
– A statement believed to be false.
– A statement not believed to be true.
– An offence committed but not affirmed.

Q. What offence, if any, has been caused by the accused ‘X’ in the following facts :
‘X’ had some verbal wrangle with his wife ‘Y’ and in course of that he gave her a blow with great force and after an interval for two hours ‘Y’ died. Medical evidence provided the causative factor as rapture in the spleen.”
– Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
– Grievous hurt
– Homicide
– Simple hurt

Q. Which of the following properties could not be held to be an offence of theft, when committed/taken by a person ?
– Durga Idol
– Cooking Gas
– Running Electricity
– Forgotten Umbrella

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using codes given below, answer :
Assertion (A) : In criminal breach of trust, there is conversion of property held by a person in a fiduciary capacity.
Reason (R) : A person has a right to convert property held by him in a fiduciary capacity.
– Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason for (A).
– (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
– (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Q. The main objective of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act is :
– To provide for the prevention, control and abatement of air pollution.
– To provide for ensuring standards for emission from automobiles.
– To put restrictions on the establishment of certain industrial plants.
– To establish air laboratory for air quality standards.

Q. The definition of ‘environmental pollution’ under the Environment (Protection Act) is :
– Any pollution of air, water and soil
– The presence of any solid, liquid or gaseous substance in the environment that causes injuries to man
– The presence in the environment of any environmental pollutant
– Any pollution in land, sea and air

Q. Assertion (A) : A company was unlawfully polluting streams and rivers by discharging trade effluents which raised pollution level beyond permissible limits.
Reason (R) : The court decided that the company could not be held liable under Water Act, 1974.
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is true, but (R) is false.
– (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q. The National Environment Tribunal Act provides for compensation on the basis of no fault liability in the cases of
I. Death of any person
II. Injury to any person
III. Death and injury to workman
IV. Damage to any property
– I and II are correct.
– II and III are correct.
– IV only is correct.
– I, II and IV are correct.

Q. Arrange the following cases in the chronological order on the basis of the year in which they have been decided by the Supreme Court on Public Trust doctrine under Environment law. Use the code given below :
I. M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath
II. M.I. Builders Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Radhey Shyam Sahu
III. Hinch lal Tiwari Vs. Kamala Devi
IV. Intellectual Forum, Thirupathi Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh
– IV, III, I, II
– III, II, IV, I
– III, I, IV, II
– I, II, III, IV

Q. Match items in List – I with items in List – II using codes given below :

List – I
a. Intergenerational Equity
b. Sustainable Development
c. Precautionary Principle
d. Polluter Pays Principle

List – II
i. Earth Summit, 1992, Principle 15
ii. Rio Declaration, 1992, Principle 16.
iii. Stockholm Declaration 1972, Principles 1 & 2
iv. Rio Declaration, 1992, Principle 3

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– iv iii i ii
– i iii ii iv
– ii iv i iii
– iii iv i ii

Q. For which special purpose a conditional permit for hunting any wild animal, cannot be granted under the Wild Life (Protection) Act ?
– Preparation of snake venom for manufacturing of life saving drugs.
– Collection of specimen for zoos and museums.
– Scientific research.
– Research in traditional and established Universities.

Q. Under whose specification the recycling of plastic is undertaken as per the Plastic Manufacture, Sales and Usage Rules, 1999 ?
– Indian Standard Institution
– Bureau of Indian Standards
– Indian Standard Organisation
– Indian Plastic Bureau

Q. International law may be defined in broad terms as the body of general principles and specific rules which are binding upon the members of the International Community in their mutual relations. Who has given this definition of Public International Law ?
– J.G. Starke
– Charles G. Fenwick
– Whiteman
– Torsten Gihl

Q. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :

List – I (Name of Cases)
a. Portugal Vs. India
b. Burkina Faso Vs. Mali
c. Spain Vs. Canada
d. Columbia Vs. Peru

List – II (Popular Names)
1. The Asylum Case
2. Fisheries Jurisdiction Case
3. Frontier Dispute Case
4. Right of Passage over Indian Territory Case

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– 1 2 3 4
– 4 3 2 1
– 2 4 1 3
– 3 1 4 2

Q. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :

List – I
a. Recognition clothes the recognized State with rights and duties under International law.
b. Recognition is merely a formal acknowledgement through which established facts are accepted
c. State recognized possesses the essential elements of statehood and fit to be subject of international law.
d. Recognition is final and once granted cannot be withdrawn

List – II
1. De Facto Recognition
2. Constitutive Theory of Recognition
3. De-Jure Recognition
4. Declaratory Theory of Recognition

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– 2 4 1 3
– 1 2 3 4
– 3 4 2 1
– 4 3 1 2

Q. The Estrada Doctrine was propounded by
– The Home Minister of Mexico
– The Foreign Minister of Mexico
– The External Secretary of U.S.A.
– The Prime Minister of U.K.

Q. Provision, “that the U.N.O. has no competence to intervene in matters which are essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of any State”, has been provided under which Article of U.N. Charter ?
– Article 1(7)
– Article 2(7)
– Article 7(2)
– Article 98(7)

Q. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :

List – I (Name of Cases)
a. Lether Vs. Sagor
b. Bank of Ethiopia Vs. National Bank of Egypt
c. Arantzazu Mendi Case
d. U.S. Vs. Pink

List – II (Years of decision)
1. 1939
2. 1942
3. 1937
4. 1921

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : a b c d
– 1 2 3 4
– 3 4 2 1
– 2 1 4 3
– 4 3 1 2

Q. Give the chronological order of the following in which they came into existence :
a. Charter of United Nations.
b. Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
c. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights.
d. International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.
– a c b d
– d b a c
– a b d c
– c d b a

Q. Propositions are :
I. A void marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
II. A void marriage is never a valid marriage and there is no necessity of any decree annulling it.
III. A voidable marriage is a valid subsisting marriage until a decree annulling it has been passed by a court of competent jurisdiction.
In respect of the aforesaid propositions which is correct ?
– I and III are correct, but II is incorrect.
– II and III are correct, but I is incorrect.
– I and III are incorrect, but II is correct.
– I and II are incorrect, but III is correct.

Q. As per Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the essential conditions of a Hindu marriage are :
I. Monogamy
II. Mental capacity
III. The bridegroom has completed the age of 21 years and the bride of 18 years
IV. No prohibited degree and sapinda relationship unless saved by custom.
– I, II and IV
– II, III, and IV
– I, II and III
– I, II, III and IV

Q. Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 was held to be ‘intra-vires’ the Constitution by the Supreme Court in the case of
– T. Sareetha Vs. T.V. Subbhiah
– Saroj Rani Vs. Sudarshan
– Harvinder Kaur Vs. Harmandar Singh
– Sarla Mudgil Vs. Union of India

Q. A Muslim has given Triple Talaaq to his wife and now wants to marry her again. He can do so
– without any restriction
– only on request of such wife
– cannot marry her
– only if such woman marry another man, the marriage is consummated and he has [second Husband] divorced her

Q. In giving a child in adoption by the Hindu father, the requirement of the consent of the mother, can be dispensed with if
I. She has been declared to be of unsound mind by the Court of Competent jurisdiction.
II. She has finally and completely renounced the world.
III. She has ceased to be a Hindu.
IV. Her age is less than 18 years.
– II, III and IV
– I, II, III and IV
– I, II and III
– I, III and IV

Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

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