UGC NET Law Previous Question Paper Mock Test Dec 2014

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Read this article to read the detailed article about the detailed official UGC Net Law syllabus that has been rolled out from 2018. The UGC Net Law exam is now completely an objective type test, with 100 MCQs in Law Paper II.

The FAQs – Frequently Asked Questions about the UGC NET exam are in this article :  Ugc Net by Cbse – The complete list of faqs.

The best way to prepare for the UGC NET Law exam is to practice as many previous question papers and solve as many mock tests as possible. Register for our free demo mock tests using the link at the top of this article.  All the previous question papers published on LawMint can be practiced as online mock tests in our UGC Net practice course; which also has a database of several thousand MCQs covering the complete UGC Net Law syllabus.

Note : The UGC NET syllabus for papers 1 & 2 was changed since Jan 2019

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason(R) and answer using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The writ of Habeas Corpus can be granted to enable the detainee to argue his case in person.
Reason (R) : Because R Vs. Secretary of State for Home Departme
– (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason for (A).
– (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
– (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Q. Which of the following are matched incorrectly ?
i. Habeas Corpus – ‘To produce the body’
ii. Quo warranto – ‘Issued to a lower court to stop proceedings in a case’.
iii. Prohibition – ‘Issued to a lower court quashing a decision or order’
iv. Mandamus – ‘Commands a person to perform a public duty’.
– i, ii and iii
– ii and iii
– ii, iii and iv
– ii and iv

Q. Art. 51 A of the Constitution of India is confined to
– All citizens of India
– All persons of India
– All Non-Residents of India
– All students of India

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Code of conduct has statutory force.
Reason (R) : Because Article 102 of the Constitution says so.
– (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason for (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
– (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
– (R) is right, but (A) is wrong.

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) to answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : One of the two Acts enacted under List I Entry 66 and the other under List III Entry 25 can be repugnant to each other.
Reason (R) : Because in Annamalai University Vs. Secretary of Inf. and Tourism Department decided so.
– (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason for (A).
– (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
– (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Q. If the Government is defeated on the floor of Rajya Sabha, what is the consequence ?
– Parliament is dissolved.
– Prime Minister has to submit his resignation.
– President’s rule is imposed immediately.
– Nothing happens.

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The power under 368 of the Constitution is a constituent power subject to the constitutional scheme as to distribution of legislative power according to entries in the Seventh Schedule.
Reason (R) : Because Sasanka Sekhar Maity Vs. Union of India decided so.
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
– Both (A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not right reason for (A).
– (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
– (A) is wrong and (R) is right.

Q. Using codes given below, find out correct answers :

Administrative law deals with
i. the powers of constitutional authorities
ii. the powers of judicial authorities
iii. the powers of the administrative authorities
iv. the powers of the legislative authorities.
– Only i and ii are correct.
– Only ii is correct.
– Only iii is correct.
– i, ii, iii and iv are correct.

Q. Match List – I with List – II using codes given below :

List – I
i. There is no rigid formula for principles of natural justice.
ii. Choice of application of rules of natural justice.
iii. Justice should not only be done, but manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done.
iv. Meaning of bias

List – II
a. R.S. Dass Vs. Union of India
b. R. Vs. Sussex Justices
c. Union of India Vs. P.K. Roy
d. Secy. to Govt. Transport Dept. Vs. Munuswamy

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order : i ii iii iv
– b d a c
– c a d b
– a c b d
– c a b d

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find out correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Legitimate expectation does not grant an absolute right to a claimant.
Reason (R) : Legitimate expectation protects the right of fair hearing before a decision which results in negating a promise or withdrawing an undertaking is taken.
– (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
– (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is true and(R) is false.
– (A) is false and (R) is true.

Q. Which of the following statement is correct ?
– Gullappalli Nageswara Rao Vs. State of AP, is about bias.
– K.L. Tripathi Vs. State Bank of India, is about right of cross examination.
– General Medical Council Vs. Spaekmen, is about irrelevance of principles of natural justice; if in reaching a decision, the principles make no difference.
– N. Kalindi Vs. Tata Locomotives, is about the right of representation by a lawyer being considered to be a part of natural justice and it can be claimed as of right.

Q. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
– While certiorari can be issued against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities, mandamus can be issued against administrative authorities also.
– Mandamus can be issued for a declaration that an Act is ultra vires the Constitution and certiorari can also be issued for correcting that defect.
– Certiorari can be issued against a quasi-judicial authority to prevent it from exercising jurisdiction not vested in it. Mandamus cannot be issued for that purpose.
– Certiorari cannot be issued against usurping a public officer, but Mandamus can be issued for that purpose.

Q. Abuse of discretion can be inferred from the following circumstances. Find out the answer from the codes given below :
i. Non-application of mind.
ii. Colourable exercise of power.
iii. Non-observance of audi alteram partem.
iv. Irrelevant considerations.
– Only (i) is correct.
– Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
– Only (ii) and (iii) are correct.
– Only(ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

Q. What was the principle laid down by the Supreme Court in A. K. Kraipak Vs. Union of India ? Find correct answer from the following statements :
– Rule of law is embedded in Article 14 of the Constitution of India.
– Judicial review is a part of basic structure of the Constitution.
– Principles of natural justice are applicable to administrative proceedings.
– Post-decisional hearing would be sufficient for the observance of principles of natural justice.

Q. Find correct answer from the following statement :
– A quasi-judicial body may never review its own decision unless authorised by the statute.
– A quasi-judicial body may review its own decision if there is grave error of law in it.
– A quasi-judicial body may review its own decision if there is violation of natural justice.
– All tribunals may review their decisions.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below on the following decided cases about possession :
1. Cartwright Vs. Green
2. R.Vs. Hudson
3. Daimler Co. Vs. Continental Tyre and Rubber Co.
– 3 only
– 2 and 3
– 1 and 3
– 1 and 2

Q. Austin described ownership as a right over determinate thing with reference to one of the following. Specify the correct answer.
– Restricted in point of disposition
– Indefinite in point of user
– Unlimited in point of duration
– Unlimited in point of space

Q. Consider the following statements regarding vested and contingent rights :
1. A vested right creates an immediate interest and is transferable and heritable.
2. A contingent right creates an immediate interest and is defeated when the required facts have not occurred.
Which of the Statement given above is/are correct ?
– 1 only
– 2 only
– Both 1 and 2
– Neither 1 nor 2

Q. There is a clear cut division between the spheres of legislature and judiciary. The former makes the laws and the latter applies them. Which of the school propounds this doctrine ?
– Analytical jurisprudence
– Historical jurisprudence
– Sociological jurisprudence
– Philosophical jurisprudence

Q. In which one of the following cases was it observed by the Supreme court that precedent should not be petrified nor judicial dicta divorced from the socio-economic mores of the age ?
– Mamleshwar Vs. Kanahaiya Lal
– Bengal Immunity Company ltd. Vs. State of Bihar
– State of West Bengal Vs. Corporation of Calcutta
– K.C. Dora Vs. G. Annamanaidu

Q. Who among the following divided the sources of Law into formal sources and material sources ?
– Gray
– Keaton
– Allen
– Solmond

Q. According to Professor Goodhart a ratio decidendi of a case is
– the principle of law laid down in a decision which is the decisive element
– the conclusion reached by the judge on the basis of the material facts of the case
– the reason given by the court for its decision
– any opinion of the court on a question of law

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below find the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : Nullum Crimen is an injunction to the legislature not to implicate all the suspected persons to be prosecuted.
Reason (R) : To avoid impossibility and to settle the question, the legislature must have to use administrative ruling.
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
– (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason(R) and with the help of codes given below find the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : Participation in some manner in the act constituting the offence of common intention by all the persons to be prosecuted is necessary.
Reason (R) : Physical presence at the time of commission of crimes is not mandatory in all cases.
– Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
– (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q. Which of the mitigating factors do not justify the award of death penalty ?
– Where the murder has been previously planned.
– Such murder involves exceptional depravity.
– When such murder was against a public servant while on duty.
– When the offence was committed by the accused under the influence of extreme mental disturbance.

Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

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