UGC NET Law Previous Question Paper Mock Test Dec 2013

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"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

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"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

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Q. Fill in the blank with correct proposition of law:
The malicious injury to property as per maxim Sic Utre tuo ut allenum non leadas (to use your own property so as not to injure your neighbour’s property as provided in______.
– Damage of property as per Section 427 IPC.
– Mischief as per Section 425 IPC.
– Mischief to cause wrongful restraint as per Section 440 IPC.
– Destruction of landmark as per Section 433 IPC.

Q. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below write the appropriate answer:

I. Assertion The distinctive feature between preparation and attempt must be based on.
II. Reason Preparation consists in devising means necessary for the commission of offence while attempt is the direct movement towords commission.
– Both I and II are true but II is not correct explanation of I.
– Both I and II are true while II is the correct explanation of I.
– I is true, but II is false.
– II is true, but I is only a stage of crime.

Q. The accused caused bodily pain, disease or infirmity. But it is cognizable, bailable or compoundable. What offence, if any, has been committed by the accused?
– Voluntary causing grievous hurt as per Section 322 IPC.
– Voluntary causing serious hurt as per Section 325 IPC.
– Voluntary causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapon as per Section 324 IPC.
– Voluntary causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapon as per Section 326 IPC.

Q. An individual’s act of abridgement of another’s right to movement could be an offence of:
– wrongful confinement as per Section 340 IPC.
– an act of abridgement of right to movement was done in good faith and hence no offence.
– the movement route being diverted so assault results.
– wrongful restraint as per Section 329 IPC.

Q. Match the statement that mens rea is a loose term of elastic significance with that of the meaning in sequential order.

(a) Foresight of the consequences of the act.
(b) Criminal intention of deepest dye.
(c) An act which is visible.
(d) It depends upon knowledge and belief.

Matching probabilities:
– It is the bare capacity to know in the sequence of (a), (b), (c) and (d).
– It is essential ingredient of criminal offence in the sequence of (d), (c), (b) and (a).
– It is a presumption to fix criminal liability in the sequence of (c), (b), (a) and (d).
– Applicability of the principle becomes essential by the sequence of (b), (a), (d) and (c).

Q. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation.

I. Assertion Generally a master is not criminally liable merely because his servant has committed a negligent act.
II. Reason In ordinary course of employment a master may be criminally liable against the negligent acts of the servant.
– Both I and II are true, but II is not the correct explanation of I.
– I is true and II is the genuine reason of I.
– II is true, but I is not absolutely correct.
– II is false, but I is only an assertion.

Q. On which date & place the Earth Summit was held at?
– 6th June 1997 at Geneva.
– 20th June 1997 at London.
– 21st June 1992 at Rio.
– 27th June 1992 at Rio.

Q. In case of violation of Article 21 by disturbing the environment, the court could award damages not only for the restoration of the ecological balance but also for the victim who have suffered due to that disturbance. In which case the Supreme Court of India has made above observations?
– M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 734
– M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath, (1997) 1 SCC 388
– M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath AIR 2000 SC 1997
– M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath 2000 (2) SCALE 654

Q. In which of the following case the constitutionality, legal validity, propriety and fairness of the settlement of the claims of the victims in a mass tort action relating to Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster has been challenged in Supreme Court of India?
– Union Carbide Corp. Vs. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 273
– M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086
– Union Carbide Corp. Vs. Union of India, AIR 1992 SC 248
– Charanlal Sahu Vs. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 1480

Q. Under which Article of the Constitution Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted?
– Article 253
– Article 258
– Article 255
– Article 254

Q. The problem of the pollution of river Ganga by the inaction of the municipalities was brought to light in which of the following case?
– Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action Vs. Union of India, AIR 1996 SC 1446
– A.P. Pollution Control Board Vs. M.V. Nayudu, AIR 1999 SC 812
– S. Jagannath Vs. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 811
– M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1988 SC 1115

Q. Which one of the following cases relates to Sariska Tiger Park?
– Tarun Bharat Sangh Vs. Union of India, AIR 1992 SC 514
– Consumer Education and Research Society Vs. Union of India, AIR 2000 SC 975
– Pradeep Krishen Vs. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 2040
– Animal and Environmental Legal Defence Fund case, AIR 1997 SC 1070

Q. Which of the following case relates to transfer of Tribal lands by Government to Non-tribal people?
– Shri Manchegowda Vs. State of Karnataka, AIR 1984 SC 1151
– Samatha Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh, AIR 1997 SC 3297
– Suresh Lohiya Vs. State of Maharashtra, (1996) 10 SCC 397
– Fatesang Gimba Vasava Vs. State of Gujarat, AIR 1987 Guj. 09

Q. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer:

List – I
a. Suspension of Members
b. Veto power
c. Appointment of Secretary-General
d. Objective of the Trusteeship System

List – II
i. Article 5
ii. Article 6
iii. Article 27
iv. Article 76
v. Article 97
– a-i b-ii c-iii d-iv
– a-i b-iii c-iv d-v
– a-i b-iii c-v d-iv
– a-iii b-ii c-v d-i

Q. Which of the following Jurist regard the controversy “whether international law is a law, a dispute about words and not things”?
– Lawrence
– Austin
– Hobbes
– Hart

Q. What should be the order of the use of material source of International law?
1. Treaties and Conventions.
2. Customs
3. General principles of law recognised by civilised States.
4. Judicial decisions and juristic opinion as subsidiary means for the determination of law.
– 4, 3, 2, 1
– 2, 3, 1, 4
– 4, 2, 1, 3
– 1, 2, 3, 4

Q. Which of the Article of the Statute of International Court of Justice makes it clear that the decision of the court will have no binding force except between the parties and in respect of that particular case only?
– Article 60
– Article 59
– Article 68
– Article 38(1)

Q. Which of the following functions are performed by Economic and Social Council?
1. It may make or initiate studies with respect to international economic, social, cultural, educational, health and related matters.
2. It may make recommendations for the purpose of promoting respect for and observance of human rights.
3. It may make recommendations to promote friendly relations and understanding amongst member States.
4. It may prepare draft conventions for submission to the General Assembly on any of the subjects falling within its competence.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
– 1, 2, 3, 4
– 1, 3, 4
– 1, 2, 4
– 2, 3, 4

Q. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer:

List – I List – II
a. The Covenant on Civil and Political Rights i. 16th Dec. 1966
b. The Declaration on Human Rights ii. 1948
c. Convention on the Rights of Child iii. 1990
d. American Convention on Human Rights iv. 1969
– a-iv b-iii c-ii d-i
– a-ii b-iii c-iv d-i
– a-i b-ii c-iii d-iv
– a-iv b-ii c-iii d-i

Q. Assertion (A): International law is not a law.
Reason (R): It lacks determinate superior political authority to enforce its rules.
Using the codes given below give the correct answer.
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is true, but (R) is false.
– (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q. The junior widow has adopted a child without the consent of senior widow. Decide the adoption.
– Valid
– Void
– Voidable
– None of the choices

Q. In which State, where a widow may adopt a child without an express authority from her husband, before the HA & M Act, 1956?
– Bihar and M.P.
– U.P. and Haryana
– Madras and Bombay
– Orissa and Andhra Pradesh

Q. In ancient Hindu Marriage, which one is not approved form of Marriage?
– Brahma
– Davia
– Prajapatya
– Asura

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select the correct explanation.

Assertion (A): The Muslim Women (Protection of Divorce Rights) Act, 1986 brought changes like limit the period of maintenance to Muslim divorcee till ‘iddat’ period and in case of no relatives the liability on Wakf Boards.
Reason (R): The changes were brought under Muslim’s pressure.
– Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
– (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select the correct explanation.
Assertion (A): The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 brought different grounds for dissolution of marriage and based on Maliki schools.
Reason (R): The DMM Act, 1939 is brought on the opinion of Ulema (Ijma).
– (A) and (R) are true, (R) is correct explanation of (A).
– (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
– (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

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