UGC NET Law Previous Question Paper Mock Test Aug 2016

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Q. The criminal liability can be fixed for misrepresentation as per section 90 of Indian Penal Code, is ascertained when the consent is obtained by
– Fraud which prevents exercise of will.
– Fear of being forced to suffer injury.
– Persuaded to cure from snake bite and submitting to it.
– Causing miscarriage to terminate illegal pregnancy.

Q. Which of the following acts do not relate to instigation ?
– Express solicitation
– Counselling to console
– Stimulation
– Insinuation

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using the codes given below choose the correct answer:
Assertion (A) : A riot is simply an unlawful assembly in a particular state of activity.
Reason (R) : The use of force distinguishes riot from unlawful assembly.
– Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
– Reason (R) is right and Assertion (A) is wrong.
– Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are wrong.

Q. A Police Officer destroyed the FIR as he could not conduct the investigation due to other occupation but later, upon media report, made a fresh report basing upon totally different fact. What offence, if any, has been committed by him ?
– Secreting the document as per section 175 of IPC.
– Destruction of document to prevent its production as evidence as per Section 204 of IPC.
– False representation for prosecution as per section 205 of IPC.
– Fraudulent removal of document to avoid seizure as per Section 206 of IPC.

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : A single blow with a dangerous weapon on a vital part of the body makes the offence as murder.
Reason (R) : It is immaterial that the injury was done without any specific intention.
– Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are occasionally complementary to each other.
– Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is not supplementary to it.
– Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are wrong.

Q. ‘A’ dishonestly abstracts electricity running in electric wire connected to his house. The offence of committing theft of property is punishable under which of the provisions of IPC ?
– Causing theft without consent as per Section 378 of IPC is punishable under Section 379 of IPC.
– In such cases use of penal provisions under IPC for theft is banned as there is a special law for the purpose.
– As there is dishonest movement of electricity the offence of theft is complete, so as to attract Section 379 of IPC.
– As moving of electricity does not fall within the category of immovable property, no offence is possible.

Q. The Supreme Court while reiterating the significance of “Intergenerational Equity” observed that “the present generation has no right to deplete all the existing Forest and leave nothing for the next and future generation” in one of the following case :
– S. Jaganath v/s. Union of India.
– M.C. Mehta v/s. Union of India
– State of Himachal Pradesh v/s. Ganesh Wood Products.
– Indian Council for Enviro-legal Action v/s. Union of India.

Q. Match List-I with List-II using codes given below.

List – I
(a) Banning plastic carry bag below 40 MW affecting Environment, Animals and Wildlife.
(b) The burden of proof will be on industry or the Unit which is likely to cause pollution.
(c) Compensate for reversing the ecology and compensate the individual for loss suffered.
(d) Dislocation of poor Forest dwellers will infringe their Fundamental right to life and livelihood.

List – II
(i) Vellore Citizen Welfare Forum v/s. Union of India.
(ii) Research Foundation for Science v/s. Union of India.
(iii) Banwasi Seva Ashram v/s. State of U.P.
(iv) S. Jaganath v/s. Union of India

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
– (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
– (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
– (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Q. Which one of the conference is regarded as “Water Shed” in the field of Environment that enables the international community and institutions to work without being bothered by the principle of State Sovereignty ?
– Stockholm Conference
– Bali Conference
– Copenhagen Conference
– RIO Conference

Q. The relevant Constitutional Amendment which obligates the Municipal bodies to ensure Environmental protection are
– 42nd and 43rd
– 65th and 66th
– 71st and 72nd
– 73rd and 74th

Q. Which one of the following statement is incorrect ?
– Environmental measures by the State/Central Government and statutory authorities must anticipate, prevent and attack the causes of environmental degradation.
– Where the thefts are of serious and irreversible nature, lack of scientific certainty should not be used as reason for postponing measures to prevent environmental degradation.
– There need not be a bonafide reason to believe that the activity is not environmentally benign.
– The onus of proof is on the actor or the developer to show that his action is environmentally benign.

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Customary International Law if not contrary to the Municipal Laws shall be deemed to have been incorporated in the Domestic Law and shall be followed by the courts.
Reason (R) : Sustainable development as a balancing concept between ecology and development has been accepted as apart of customary International Law.
– (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
– Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct reason of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
– Both (A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not the correct reason of (A).

Q. Which one of the following is incorrect ? The National Green Tribunal vested with both Original and Appellate jurisdiction relating to Environmental matters :
– have powers vested in a civil court.
– not bound by the rules of evidence.
– bound by the procedure laid down by the code of civil procedure.
– have powers to regulate its own procedure.

Q. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The greatest shortcoming of International law is that it lacks an effective executive authority to enforce its rules.
Reason (R) : Due to lack of effective sanctions, rules of International Law are frequently violated.
– Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
– (A) is correct, (R) is wrong.
– (A) is wrong, (R) is correct.

Q. Which of the following statement/Statements is/are correct ?
(a) Article 38 of the Statute of the Permanent Court of International justice mentions only 4 source of International law.
(b) Right of passage over Indian Territory Case (Portugal v/s. India) is a case decided by the International Court of justice based upon General Principle of law recognised by Civilized States.
(c) Decisions or determinations of the organs of the International Institutions does not find mention in Article 38 of the Statute of the International Court but has become a Well-recognised source of International Law.
(d) In Chorzow Factory (Indemnity) case the permanent court of justice applied the principle of subrogation.
– Only (a) is correct.
– Only (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
– Only (a) and (c) are correct.
– (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.

Q. In which of the following cases Russel J. observed, “the question of what state a person belongs to must ultimately be decided by the Municipal law of the state to which he claims to belong or to which, it is alleged that he belongs” ?
– Winans v/s. Attorney General
– Nottebohm’s Case
– Stoeck v/s. The Public Trustee
– Somerville v/s. Somerville

Q. The European convention on Extradition entered into force on
– 13th December, 1957
– 18th April, 1957
– 18th April, 1964
– 13th December, 1964

Q. On 28th March, 1945, a convention on Territorial Asylum was adopted at
– Geneva
– Caracus
– Paris
– Tokyo

Q. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?
(a) The General Assembly consists of all the members of the United Nations.
(b) The economic and social council, works as a subordinate organ of the General Assembly.
(c) The General Assembly is a World Legislative body. It can Legislate in regard to most political matters.
(d) Decisions on important questions are made by consensus of the Members present and voting in the General Assembly.
– Only (a) is correct.
– Only (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
– Only (a) and (b) are correct.
– (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct.

Q. Which one of the following cases, has not been decided by the International Court of Justice under its contentious jurisdiction ?
– Nuclear Tests Case (June 22, 1973)
– Corfu Channel case.
– Nottebohm (Liechtentein v/s. Gutemala) case.
– Legality of the Threat or use of Nuclear Weapons.

Q. Grounds of voidable marriage under sec. 12 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 are :
(a) Non-consummation due to impotence.
(b) Pre-marriage pregnancy by a person other than the petitioner.
(c) Consent obtained by force or fraud.
(d) Conversion to non-Hindu religion.
– (a), (c) and (d) are correct, but (b) is incorrect.
– (d), (c) and (b) are correct, but (a) is incorrect.
– (a), (b) and (c) are correct, but (d) is incorrect.
– (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

Q. Match List-I with List-II and find correct answer by using codes given below.

List – I
(a) Dastane v/s. Dastane
(b) Iqbal Bano v/s. State of U.P.
(c) Lily Thomas v/s. Union of India
(d) Harvinder Kaur v/s. Harmandar Singh

List – II
(i) Bigamy
(ii) Restitution of Conjugal Rights
(iii) Maintenance of Muslim Wife
(iv) Mental Cruelty

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
– (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
– (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
– (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Q. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is not applicable on which of the following ?
– Virashaivas and Lingayats.
– Scheduled Tribes unless otherwise directed by the Central Government.
– Hindus, Jains and Sikhs.
– Buddhists and followers of Brahmo, Prarthana or Arya Samaj.

Q. A Hindu can adopt a male child if the adopter has no
– Son, Son’s son or Son’s son’s son.
– Adopted Hindu son, Son’s son or Son’s son’s son.
– Legitimate or adopted Hindu son, Son’s son or Son’s Son’s son.
– Legitimate Hindu son, Son’s son or Son’s Son’s son.

Q. Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 makes available the following grounds of divorce to a wife :
I. Seven years or upward imprisonment to the husband.
II. Continued impotence of the husband.
III. Insanity of the husband for the last one year.
IV. Four years absence of the husband.
– I, II and IV are correct, but III is incorrect.
– II, III and IV are correct, but I is incorrect.
– I, II, III and IV are correct.
– III is correct, but I, II and IV are incorrect.

Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

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