PU LLM 2019 Previous Question Paper & Mock Test Series

PU LLM Entrance - 125 Mock Tests Series & Previous Question Papers
  • PU CET LLM previous question papers with answer keys - 2011 to latest exam
  • 75 Full Length Mock tests of 100 questions each - from a question bank of 9000+ selected MCQs
  • 50 Mini Mock tests of 25 questions each - for quick practice sessions
  • Each Full Mock Test is designed as a Model Paper
  • Summarized overview of Important Jurisprudence topics
  • Overview of all Constitutional Amendments
  • All Tests & Previous Papers are timed and have Negative marking for realistic simulation
  • Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
  • Over 100 LawMint users were offered seats across various NLUs in CLAT PG 2020 - Including NLSIU, NALSAR & NLU Delhi
  • Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers and Desktops

Authentic Feedback from previous exam users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG 2020. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation πŸ™‚ - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM 2020 - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET June 2020. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance 2019, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET 2020. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG 2019 and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG 2019. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG 2019 and AIR 29 in CLAT PG 2019 examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

## Indian Constitution allows “Declaration of One’s religious beliefs and faith openly and freely”. This falls under which of the following categories?
# Right to Practice
# Right to Propagate
# Freedom of Conscience
# Right to Profess

## Discrimination on the grounds of “Place of residence” only is prohibited under which one of the following articles of the Constitution?
# Article 14
# Article 15
# Article 16
# None of the options

## Which of the following safeguards are available to the Indian Citizens as per Article 22 of the Indian Constitution?<br>1. No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be witness against himself.<br>2. The detention of persons, who are detained under preventive detention law, cannot exceed two months without obtaining the opinion of an advisory board.
# 1 only
# 2 only
# Both 1 and 2
# None of the options

## Article 43 B in Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with:
# Rural Business Hubs
# Cooperative Societies
# Village Panchayats
# Forest Development

## A bill which affects the meaning of expression, which among the following, can be introduced in the parliament only on recommendation of President of India?
# Foreign Loans
# Corporation Tax
# Agriculture Income
# Export Duties

## Which among the following bodies do not have the powers of Civil Court as part of their duties?
# National Commission for SCs
# National Commission for STs
# Union Public Service Commission
# None of the options

## Central Social Welfare Board is/falls under
# Ministry of Women and Child Development
# Ministry of Social Justice and Women Empowerment
# An Autonomous and Independent body
# Ministry of Minority Affairs

## In issuing one of the writs, the Supreme Court orders: “the respondent was not entitled to an office he was holding or a privilege he was exercising” The above declaration can be identified as which among the following writs?
# Writ of Prohibition
# Writ of Quo-warranto
# Writ of Certiorari
# Writ of Habeas Corpus

## Which of the following schedules can be amended by simple majority of Parliament.<br>1. Second Schedule.<br>2. Fifth Schedule.<br>3. Sixth Schedule<br>4. Seventh Schedule.
# 1 only
# 1 & 4 only
# 2 & 3 only
# 1, 2 & 3 only

## Which among the following is NOT a salient feature of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?
# Gram Sabha
# Three Tier System
# Reservation of Seats
# State Planning Commission

## Which amendment of the constitution was offered full statehood to Arunachal Pradesh?
# Fifty-Fifth
# Sixtieth
# Forty-Fourth
# Sixth-Fifth

## Under the provisions of Article 343 of the Constitution, Hindi was declared the official language of the Union. But the use of English language was allowed to continue for the official purpose of the Union for a period of:
# 20 years
# 15 years
# 25 years
# 10 years

## Who said that Directive Principle and Fundamental Rights are the conscience of the Constitution?
# Bhim Rao Ambedkar
# Granville Austin
# Jawaharlal Lal Nehru
# Rajendra Prasad

## Under the constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
# To vote in public elections
# To develop the scientific temper
# To safeguard public property
# To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals

## The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the:
# Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
# Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
# Government of India Act, 1935
# Indian Independence Act, 1947

## Consider the following official languages of India:<br>1. Sindhi and Nepali<br>2. Konkani and Manipuri<br>3. Bodo and Santhali<br>4. Santhali and Konkani<br>5. Dogri and and Maithili<br><br>Which of the above languages were added to the 8th Schedule by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003?
# 1 and 2
# 2 and 3
# 3 and 5
# 4 and 5

## Democracy and Federalism are essential features of our Constitution and basic feature of its structure. This observation was made in S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India by the Judge.
# Justice P.B. Sawant
# Justice S.R. Pandyan
# Justice J.S. Verma
# Justice A.M. Ahmadi

## The Hon’ble Supreme Court in 2006 decided the constitutional validity of the Act which seeks to levy sale tax on Inter-State Sales:
# Bhagatram Rejeev Kumar v. Commissioner of Sales Tax
# Jindal Stainless Ltd. & another v. State of Haryana and others
# State of Bihar v. Bihar Chamber of Commerce
# Jaiprakash Associates Ltd. v State of M.P

## Necessitas Public Major est Quam latin terms means
# State necessity is greater than private necessity
# Public necessity is greater than private necessity
# Private necessity is greater than state necessity
# None of the options

## The Constituent assembly while enacting Freedom of Trade, Commerce and Intercourse took into the consideration
# Section 90 of Australian Constitution
# Section 91 of Australian Constitution
# Section 92 of Australian Constitution
# Section 93 of Australian Constitution

## Keshvanand Bharathi v. State of Kerala the Supreme Court declared Second part of Article ______ declared invalid.
# 31 C
# 31 B
# 31 A
# 31

## Article 300 A was enacted through ______ Amendment Act.
# Forty-second
# Forty-third
# Forty-fourth
# None of these

## In the case Bachpan Bachao Andolan v. Union of India the children were prohibited to work in
# Circus
# Match Industry
# Tobacco Industry
# None of the options

## In the case State of Gujarat v. Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat the matter relating to fixation of wages with regard to ______ was deliberated.
# Labourers
# Prisoners
# Child Workers
# None of the options

## Child Labour Rehabilitation-cum-Welfare Fund was established in the following case:
# M.C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu & others
# Bachpan Bachao Andolan v. Union of India
# P.U.D.R v. Union of India
# Gurdev Singh v. State of Himachal Pradesh

## In which year the Traditional Forest Dwellers Act was enacted in India?
# 2004
# 2005
# 2006
# 2008

## The Environment Protection Act of 1986 (EPA) came into force soon after which of the following disaster in India?
# Bhopal Gas Tragedy
# Oleum Gas Leak
# Maline Landslide in Pune
# None of the options

## The Kigali agreement was an amendment to which of the following international conventions aimed at conserving the environment?
# Montreal Protocol
# Stockholm Convention
# Bonn Convention
# Kyoto Protocol

## Which among the following terms of utmost significance in the dynamics of resource management was coined in the ‘Brundtland Commission Report’?
# Polluter-Pays Principle
# Sustainable development
# Inclusive Growth
# Carrying Capacity

## Which among the following multilateral convention seeks to protect the human health and environment from Persistant Organic Pollutants (POPs)?
# Bonn Convention
# Stockholm Convention
# Rotterdam Convention
# Basel Convention

## Bias disqualifies a person from acting as judge flows fromwhich ofthe following principle:
# No one should be the judge in his own
# Justice must not only be done under dictation
# Justice should be supposed to be done
# Justice should not be done under dictation

## The expression “New Despotism” used by Hewart refers to:
# Administrative law
# Constitutional law
# Rule of law
# Public law

## What is the meaning of collective rights?
# Collective rights belong to distinct groups of people
# Collective rights are those that belong to particular groups as opposed to the individual members of the group
# Minority rights are collective rights
# Collective rights entail a right of the group as such as well as individual rights of the group’s members

## The Right to Self-determination is ______ generation human right.
# First
# Second
# Third
# None of the options

## Which of the following is a treaty-based human rights mechanism?
# The UN Human Rights Committee
# The UN Human Rights Council
# The UN Universal Periodic Review
# The UN special mandates

## Would a reservation to the definition of torture in the ICCPR be acceptable in contemporary practice?
# This is an acceptable reservation if the reserving country’s legislation employs a different definition
# This is an unacceptable reservation because it contravenes the object and purpose of the ICCPR
# This is an unacceptable reservation because the definition of torture in the ICCPR is consistent with customary international law
# This is an acceptable reservation because under general international law States have the right to enter reservations to treaties

## What is the legal nature of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)?
# The UDHR is a multilateral treaty
# The UDHR is a UN General Assembly resolution
# The UDHR is a UN Security Council resolution
# The UDHR is a declaration adopted by several States at an international conference

## What is the effect of violation of the rule: “Audi Alteram Partem” on an administrative action?
# Mere irregularity
# Null and void
# An illegality
# Voidable

## In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that the principles of natural justice are applicable to administrative proceedings?
# M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
# Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
# A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
# Smt. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain

## In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court directed closing down and demolition of shrimp industries in coastal regulation zone and implement the “precautionary principle” and “the polluter pays principle and held them liable for payment of compensation for reversing the ecology and compensate the individual for loss suffered?
# S. Jagannath Vs. Union of India
# Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum Vs. Union of India
# M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India
# Church of God (Full Gospels) in India Vs. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association

## The term “environment” under Section 2 (a) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 means
# Air, Water and Land only
# Water, Air, Land and interrelationship between air, water, and land only
# Water, Air, Land, and the interrelationship between water, air and land and human beings, other living creatures, plants, micro-organism and property
# None of the options

## According to Article 233 the appointment of a District Judge shall be done by
# The President in consultation with the High Court of the State concerned
# The Governor of the State concerned in consultation with the High Court of the State concerned
# The Governor in Consultation with the Chief Justice of India
# The Collegium of the High Court

## Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution gives the provision of the Post of Prime Minister of India?
# Article 73
# Article 74
# Article 75
# Article 74(1)

## Who defined administrative law as; “Law relating to the Administration It determines the organisation, powers and duties of administrative authorities”?
# Sir Ivor Jennings
# A.V. Dicey
# Kenneth Culp Davis
# Griffith and Strut

## One is deemed to have placed under suspension is he is detained in custody for a period exceeding
# 48 hours
# 24 hours
# 72 hours
# 12 hours

## When will the order of suspension made or deemed to have been made, not be valid unless extended? After a period of ______ days
# 60 days
# 90 days
# 30 days
# 45 days

## According to Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, the right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the assistant if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right is the act of:
# Stalking
# Voyeurism
# Acid Attack
# None of the options

## Section 34 of IPC:<br>A) Creates a substantive offence<br>B) Is a rule of evidence
# A only
# B only
# Both (A) and (B)
# Neither (A) nor (B)

## How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code:
# Three
# Six
# Five
# Four

## Match List I (case) with List II (Subject) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:<br><br>List I (Cases)<br>a) K.M. Nanavati vs. State of Maharastra<br>b) Virsa Singh vs. State of Punjab<br>c) Barindra Kumar Ghosh vs. Emperor<br>d) ShyamBehari vs. State of U.P.<br><br>List II (Subject)<br>1) Criminal Conspiracy<br>2) Dacoity<br>3) Murder<br>4) Grave and Sudden Provocation<br>5) Unsoundness of Mind<br><br>Codes: a b c d
# 4 3 1 2
# 1 2 5 3
# 4 2 1 3
# 1 3 5 2

## Which of the following is the principle applied in construing a penal Act?
# If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will be resolved against the person who would be liable to the penalty
# If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will be resolved in the favour of the person who would be liable to the penalty
# If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will attract life imprisonment
# If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will attract capital punishment

## Which of the following statements best expresses the scope of the concept of relevance in evidence law?
# Relevant evidence is that which establishes the certainty of a fact in issue incorrect
# All relevant evidence is admissible
# Relevant evidence is that which makes the existence of any fact that is of consequence to the determination of the action more probable or less probable than it would be without the evidence
# What is relevant is always a matter of logic and common sense and never a matter of law

## A party wants to set aside a judgement under section 44 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. In which of the following circumstances can he do so?
# In case the judgement was passed by a superior Court
# In case the person challenging is a stranger to the proceedings
# In case the judgement was a result of gross negligence
# All of the options

## B, an accused wants to submit carbon copy of the suicide note as secondary evidence. The original is with the opposite party and he has failed to produce the same. The suicide was not within the knowledge of the accused prior to the receipt of carbon copy. Which of the following statements will hold true for the case?
# The evidence cannot be admitted due to applicability of section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act
# The evidence cannot be admitted because it fails to satisfy the requirements of section 64 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
# The evidence cannot be admitted because it fails to satisfy the requirements of section 65 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
# The evidence can be admitted as it satisfies the requirements of both section 64 and section 65 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

## Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013?
# Section 32
# Section 55
# Section 119
# Section 124

 

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PU LLM Entrance - 125 Mock Tests Series & Previous Question Papers
  • PU CET LLM previous question papers with answer keys - 2011 to latest exam
  • 75 Full Length Mock tests of 100 questions each - from a question bank of 9000+ selected MCQs
  • 50 Mini Mock tests of 25 questions each - for quick practice sessions
  • Each Full Mock Test is designed as a Model Paper
  • Summarized overview of Important Jurisprudence topics
  • Overview of all Constitutional Amendments
  • All Tests & Previous Papers are timed and have Negative marking for realistic simulation
  • Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
  • Over 100 LawMint users were offered seats across various NLUs in CLAT PG 2020 - Including NLSIU, NALSAR & NLU Delhi
  • Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers and Desktops

Authentic Feedback from previous exam users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG 2020. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation πŸ™‚ - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM 2020 - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET June 2020. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance 2019, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET 2020. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG 2019 and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG 2019. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG 2019 and AIR 29 in CLAT PG 2019 examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty
PU LLM Entrance 2019 Previous Question Paper Mock Test Model Paper Series

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