IIT KGP RGSOIPL LLM Entrance Model Question Paper

RGSOIPL LLM Entrance IIT KGP - Rajiv Gandhi School of Intellectual Property Law Model Question Paper, Previous Question Paper and Mock Tests
IIT KGP LLM 2020 Entrance Mock Tests Practice Pack
  • Practice tests based on the the latest exam pattern
  • Full Official Model Paper included - with answer key
  • 50 Full Length Mock tests of 100 questions each - from a question bank of 9000 selected MCQs
  • 50 Mini Mock tests of 25 questions each - for quick practice sessions
  • Summarized overview of Important Jurisprudence topics
  • Overview of all Constitutional Amendments
  • Summary list of Important (Recent) Supreme Court Judgments
  • All Tests & Previous Papers are timed and have Negative marking for realistic simulation
  • Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
  • Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers and Desktops
  • Eighty Three (83) LawMint users were offered LLM seats in 2019 - Including IIT KGP, NLSIU, NALSAR and NLU Delhi

This is the 2018 – Model Question Paper provided by IIT Kharagpur for the RGSOIPL LLM Entrance Test. While the current actual paper will have 120 questions, the official model paper has only 80 objective type questions – as an indicator of the question types.

IIT KGP does has not published any previous question papers for the LLM entrance test; therefore, the best way to prepare for the exam is to analyse the Model Question Paper and with mock tests created on the basis of feedback from previous test takers.

The answers to this Model Paper are included in our RGSOIPL LLM Entrance Online Practice Pack. This question paper does not have the prescribed number of questions, since IIT KGP has published only this partial model paper.

 

1) Element of custom does not include
i) Absence of Inconsistency
ii) Long Duration
iii) Uniformity
iv) Generality
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) i & ii only
b) ii only
c) i, ii & iii only
d) All of the choices

2) Critical Race Theory can be seen as
a) A response to and disillusionment with the Civil Rights Movement in the United States
b) A tool to support the notion that existence of multiple races with varied economic strengths are natural and thus, should prevail
c) A movement for eradication of affirmative actions on the basis of caste and gender
d) All of the choices

3) Core and penumbra analysis of legal interpretation forms an important part of
a) Prof. Hart’s assertion of legal positivism
b) Prof. Fuller’s rejection of legal positivism
c) Prof. Raz’s theory of positivism
d) None of the choices

4) In Hohfeld’s theory of rights, liberty means
a) Qualified duties towards others
b) Right to change legal rights and obligations of others
c) The sphere of activities where law has left an individual alone
d) Imposing duties

5) Application of deconstruction in legal interpretation requires that
a) Law must be interpreted in light of the intention of legislature
b) Legal text should be liberated from the authors’ of the text
c) Questions of law and mixed questions law and fact should be treated separately
d) All of the choices

6) Scandinavian Legal Realism
a) May be conceived as a version of legal positivism that seeks a strict separation of law and politics and law and morality
b) Contemplates that law is practice of the courts
c) Contemplates that law and morality cannot be separated
d) Contemplates dictate of moral principles

7) American Legal Realism contemplates that
a) Law is deductive reasoning
b) Law should contain a minimum degree of morality
c) Law is not merely logic but logic coupled with experience
d) Law is mere conglomeration of morals

8) The Dominance Model of the Feminist Legal Theory views
a) Law as command of the sovereign
b) Law as combination of primary and secondary rules
c) Women’s sexuality is socially constructed by the male order and the sexual dominance of women by men is a primary source of the general social subordination of women
d) Subjugation of rights of men

9) Jurimetrics broadly deals with interrelation of law with
a) Mathematics and statistics
b) Econometrics
c) Economic models
d) Decision making matrices

10) John Rawls’s Theory of Justice contemplates that
a) All individuals in the society should be treated equally
b) Every individual in the society should be entitled to most extensive form of liberty to which the other individuals are entitled to
c) All individuals in the society should be treated as per their status and income
d) All individuals have equal access to resources

11) Robert Nozick in his book Anarchy, State, and Utopia conceives justice
a) As fairness
b) As entitlements
c) Absolute equality
d) An egalitarianism

12) ‘Law cannot fulfil its coordinating and other directive functions unless it is promulgated’. The statement symbolises
a) Formalism
b) Realism
c) Pragmatism
d) Sub-alteran studies

13) The principle that behaviour in accordance with human nature is morally right and behaviour not in accordance with human nature is morally wrong cannot be correct in all cases relates with
a) Drawback of natural theory
b) Reason of formalism
c) Reason of conceptualism
d) All of the choices

14) Which provision/s in the Constitution of India prohibits practice of Child labour in India?
i) Article 20
ii) Article 21
iii) Article 24
iv) Article 32
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) i only
b) ii & iii only
c) iii only
d) iii & iv

15) Directive Principles in the Constitution are
a) Aspirations of the Indians
b) Enforceable in the court of law
c) Fundamental in the governance of the country
d) None of the choices

16) Which one is appropriate writ to be issued against the inferior court?
a) Certiorari
b) Quo Warranto
c) Mandamus
d) All of the choices

17) The power of the President to promulgate Ordinance is coterminous with the executive power of the Union except in a situation where Rajya Sabha passes a resolution with regard to law to be made by Parliament
a) Statement is partly correct
b) Statement is incorrect
c) Statement is correct
d) None of the choices

18) Regulating Taxes are not violative of Article 301 of because
a) Made in public interest
b) Of facilitative nature
c) Both a and b
d) None of the choices

19) Residuary power can be invoked
a) After exhausting the scrutiny of the subject matter in the List II
b) After exhausting the scrutiny of the subject matter in List III and List II
c) Both a and b
d) None of the choices

20) Repugnancy applies only in case of conflict relating to laws on
a) Concurrent List
b) Central List and State List
c) State List
d) All of the choices

21) National Judicial Appointments Commission [NJAC] was declared unconstitutional on the ground of
a) Violative of basic structure doctrine
b) Lack of legislative competence
c) Both a and b
d) None of the choices

22) Can the President send a message to the Parliament?
a) No
b) Yes
c) Only through the Chief Justice of India
d) Only through the Prime Minster’s Office

23) Which one of the following sets of Bills is presented to the Parliament along with the Budget?
a) Direct Taxes Bill and Indirect Taxes Bill
b) Contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill
c) Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill
d) Finance Bill and Contingency Bill

24) If the Speaker of the Lok Sabha intends to vacate his office before the expiry of his term, he sends his resignation to the
a) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
b) Leader of the Flouse (Lok Sabha)
c) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
d) President of India

25) The Doctrine of Severability indicates which of the following
a) Law is separate from custom
b) The whole law is void, if it is inconsistent with the Fundamental rights
c) Law is void only to the extent of the inconsistency or contravention, if that is severable
d) Certain features of the Constitution cannot be amended even by Parliament

26) A decision of International Court of Justice (ICJ) has a binding effect on
i) States in similar situations
ii) National courts in certain circumstances
iii) All parties to the ICJ Charter
iv) Parties alone in that particular case
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) i only
b) iii only
c) iv only
d) i, ii & iv only

27) “Baseline” in the law of the Sea refers to
a) Line between the sea and land
b) Equal distance from sea and land
c) Low-water line along the coast as marked on officially recognized large-scale charts
d) Lower water line during the spring tide and neap tide

28) “Any breach of engagement involves an obligation to make reparation.” is held in ..
a) Anglo-lranian Oil Company case
b) Chorzow Factory case
c) North American Dredging Co. case
d) Rainbow Warrior case

29) Extradition takes place when..
a) There is a crime committed by its citizen in a foreign country
b) Political crimes
c) Military and religious offences
d) An extraditable offence and treaty between both countries

30) Consular Immunity includes only..
a) Murder
b) Kidnapping
c) Inviolability of official papers and communication
d) Residential premises
General Principles of Contract and Company Law

31) Grant of temporary injunctions are governed by
a) Specific Relief Act, 1963
b) Civil Procedure Code, 1908
c) Transfer of Property Act, 1882
d) Rules of Practice of concerned High Court

32) An agreement is formed
a) Even without acceptance of the proposal in all circumstances
b) With the acceptance of the proposal
c) With the acceptance of the proposal supported by consideration
d) By none of the above processes

33) De- merger means
a) When two companies come together and incorporate as one entity
b) When two companies come together and one of them continues
c) When the merged entity splits into two entities
d) When one company splits into two companies
Labour Law

34) A company rendering computer services relating to the collection and maintenance of information and developed computer software applications for the requirements of its customers, is
a) Industrial Establishment under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1946
b) Factory under the Factories Act, 1948
c) Both a & b
d) None of the choices

35) Which are the states that amended their labour laws to allow retrenchment of employees upto three hundreds by companies without approval of the government?
a) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
b) Rajasthan and Maharashtra
c) Maharashtra and Gujarat
d) None of the choices

36) India has not ratified following ILO Convention(s)
a) Freedom of Association and Protection of the Right to Organise Convention, 1948
b) Right to Organise and Collective Bargaining Convention, 1949
c) Minimum Wage Convention, 1973
d) All of the choices

37) ‘Ultimate control over the affairs of the factory’ is known as
a) Manager
b) Occupier
c) Chairman-cum-Managing Director
d) All of the choices

38) Workman is allowed to raise an industrial dispute, if employer) from the employment
a) Terminates, suspends and dismisses
b) Dismisses, discharges and terminates
c) Discharges, suspends and dismisses
d) All of the choices

39) A registered trade union can collect fund for….
a) Charitable purposes
b) Political purposes
c) Any purpose
d) Welfare purposes

40) Leave with wages is allowed when an employee works for …days in a month
a) 26 days
b) 20 days
c) 22 days
d) 30 days

 

The answers to this Model Paper are included in our RGSOIPL LLM Entrance Online Practice Pack

IIT KGP LLM 2020 Entrance Mock Tests Practice Pack
  • Practice tests based on the the latest exam pattern
  • Full Official Model Paper included - with answer key
  • 50 Full Length Mock tests of 100 questions each - from a question bank of 9000 selected MCQs
  • 50 Mini Mock tests of 25 questions each - for quick practice sessions
  • Summarized overview of Important Jurisprudence topics
  • Overview of all Constitutional Amendments
  • Summary list of Important (Recent) Supreme Court Judgments
  • All Tests & Previous Papers are timed and have Negative marking for realistic simulation
  • Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
  • Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers and Desktops
  • Eighty Three (83) LawMint users were offered LLM seats in 2019 - Including IIT KGP, NLSIU, NALSAR and NLU Delhi

41) Definition of child under the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 is not completed the age of
a) 18 years
b) 16 years
c) 14 years
d) 12 years

42) A person arrested on a charge of committing an offence may be medically examined
a) If there are reasonable grounds for believing that his examination will afford evidence
b) If requested by the police officer
c) If requested by the counsel of the accused
d) Only a and b

48) An inquiry, trial or proceeding which takes place in a wrong session’s division is
a) Illegal
b) Void
c) Set Aside
d) None of the choices

44) A is accused of the theft of a certain article at a certain time and place. The charge should include
a) The date, time and place of the alleged offence
b) The manner of executing the theft
c) The name of the victim
d) All of the choices

45) The handwriting of a person may be proved in the following manner
a) By evidence of the writer himself
b) By evidence of any person acquainted with the handwriting
c) By the evidence of an expert
d) All of the choices

46) Which of the following is a public document?
a) Contracts
b) Leases
c) Mortgage Deeds
d) None of the choices

47) A) is not in itself evidence but only makes a prima facie case for party in whose
favour it exists.
a) Assumption
b) Presumption
c) Statement
d) Admission

48) Which one of the following is NOT a mode of execution of the judgment
a) Delivery of property
b) By attachment and sale
c) Appointment of amicus curiae
d) Arrest and detention in civil prison

49) A resides in Delhi, beats B in Kolkata. B may sue A in
a) Delhi
b) Kolkata
c) Either in Delhi or Kolkata
d) Any other place convenient to’A’

50) Communication by a father to his daughter about the character and standing of a man whom she proposes to marry is
a) Defamation
b) Fair Comment
c) Qualified privilege
d) None of the choices

51) Attempt to commit suicide is
a) An offence
b) A perversion
c) Not an offence
d) A sign of deep depression

52) Death caused with the consent of the deceased is
a) Murder
b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c) Grievous hurt
d) None of the choices

53) Recordal of Registered User in relation to the Trademark is) in India
a) Voluntary
b) Mandatory
c) Mandatory only in certain circumstances
d) None of the choices

54) One of the following is not an exception to patent rights
a) Use of invention for research purposes
b) Use of invention for limited sales
c) Use of invention for instruction purposes
d) Use of invention for regulatory purposes

55) One of the following is an incorrect statement in relation to GIs
a) In India GI protection is possible for natural or manufactured goods which are essentially and exclusively associated with a geographical region
b) US protects GI as certification marks
c) In EU separate regulation is available for Gl protection in case of agriculture goods, wines and spirit
d) TRIPS makes it mandatory for Gl to be protected first at country level to seek protection at the International level

56) One of the following is correct in relation to Trade Secrets protection
a) India has a specific legislation for Trade Secrets protection
b) Trade Secrets need not be kept reasonably secret
c) Business information cannot be protected as Trade Secrets
d) Companies protect Trade Secrets as know-how

57) Stockholm Conference of 1972 on the Environment propounds..
a) Human development
b) Sustainable development
c) Human environment
d) Human settlements

58) Kyoto Protocol deals with
a) Reduction in usage of energy
b) Reduction of greenhouse gases
c) Reduction in water usage
d) None of the choices

59) The Bhopal gas tragedy case fixed
a) Strict Liability
b) Absolute Liability
c) No Liability
d) Civil Liability

60) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath for the first time in India introduced
a) Polluter pays principle
b) Principle of prevention
c) Public trust doctrine
d) Precautionary principle

61) A ‘sanctuary’ may be established under
a) Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
b) Indian Forest Act, 1927
c) The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
d) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

62) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) is
a) A multilateral treaty
b) A UN General Assembly resolution
c) A UN Security Council resolution
d) A declaration adopted by several States at an international conference

63) ‘Right to development’ belongs to
a) A second-generation right
b) A first-generation right
c) A third-generation right
d) None of the choices

64) Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, ‘Human rights’ means
a) The rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed under the Constitution
b) The rights embodied in the International Covenants
c) The rights enforceable by courts in India.
d) All of the choices

65) ‘Optional Protocol to the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights’ allows
a) Communication procedures
b) Inquiry procedures
c) Inter-State Complaint Procedure
d) All of the choices

66) Which is not a part of International Bill of Rights
a) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
b) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
c) Social and Economic Charter
d) International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights

67) Tax on income is a form of
a) Direct tax
b) Indirect tax
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)

68) Income earned through interest on saving bank account is taxable under the head
a) Income from bank
b) Income from savings
c) Income from capital gain
d) Income from other sources

69) India-Mauritius Tax Treaty, 1982 is famous for
a) Foreign Direct Investment
b) Foreign Institutional Investment
c) Treaty shopping
d) None of the choices

70) Income from sale and purchase of shares listed on Indian stock exchange and sold through stock broker are taxed under
a) Short-Term capital gain
b) Long-Term capital gain
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of the choices

71) National Tax Tribunal was held unconstitutional in the case of
a) Madras Bar Association v. Union of India
b) CIT v. Visakhapatnam Port Trust
c) Hari Kishna v. CIT
d) Hindu Cotton Press Co. Ltd v. CIT

72) When a non-Muslim married according to religious rites stipulating monogamy, renounces his religion, converts to Islam and solemnizes a second marriage, according to Islamic rites, without divorcing his first wife
a) The second marriage is valid
b) The second marriage is irregular
c) The second marriage is void
d) It depends on the wish of the first wife

73) Through the Hindu Succession ( Amendment) Act 2005, the following change has been made
a) The daughter is coparcener by birth in the same manner as son
b) Her liabilities in Mitakshara coparcenary are like liabilities of son
c) The daughter and other females are entitled to bequeath their share in the coparcenary like their male counterparts
d) All of the choices

74) The requirements for seeking divorce by mutual consent are
a) Any of the grounds for dissolution of marriage exists between the parties
b) Parties should be living separately for one year or more
c) Parties could not adjust with each other
d) Only b and c

75) You must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions which you can reasonably foresee would be likely to injure your neighbour
a) Donoghue v. Stevenson
b) Pardon v. Harcourt Rivington
c) Haley v. London Electricity Bd.
d) None of the choices

76) The foundation of the doctrine of res ipsa loquitor is that
a) The operation of the thing which caused the accident was at that time wholly under the control of the defendant
b) The defendant had the last opportunity to prevent the accident
c) The defendant has the exclusive knowledge of the accident
d) None of the choices

77) If an animal, which belongs to a class which according to mankind is not dangerous, causes damage,
a) The owner will be liable
b) The owner will be liable provided the plaintiff proves that the owner has knowledge of the mischievous propensities of that animal
c) The owner will be liable and the knowledge will be presumed on his part
d) Any of the above

78) A defendant who relies of the defence of volenti non fit injuria must show that the plaintiff
a) Freely and voluntarily incurred the risk
b) With full knowledge incurred the risk
c) Agreed to incur the risk
d) All of the choices

79) Trespass to land is a) wrong) which) lasts so long as the injury to the land continues
a) Tortious
b) Continuing
c) Absolute
d) None of the choices

80) Any fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and manner of performance which is required to be maintained by or under any law in relation to any service is called
a) Defective Services
b) Improper Services
c) Deficiency
d) Defect

The answers to this Model Paper are included in our RGSOIPL LLM Entrance Online Practice Pack

IIT KGP LLM 2020 Entrance Mock Tests Practice Pack
  • Practice tests based on the the latest exam pattern
  • Full Official Model Paper included - with answer key
  • 50 Full Length Mock tests of 100 questions each - from a question bank of 9000 selected MCQs
  • 50 Mini Mock tests of 25 questions each - for quick practice sessions
  • Summarized overview of Important Jurisprudence topics
  • Overview of all Constitutional Amendments
  • Summary list of Important (Recent) Supreme Court Judgments
  • All Tests & Previous Papers are timed and have Negative marking for realistic simulation
  • Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
  • Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers and Desktops
  • Eighty Three (83) LawMint users were offered LLM seats in 2019 - Including IIT KGP, NLSIU, NALSAR and NLU Delhi

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