DU LLM Entrance 2018 previous question paper

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"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

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Consider the following statements:
1. The minor is estopped from setting the defence of minority when by misrepresenting his age minor himself has induced the other party to enter into agreement with him.
2. Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 declares that only minors and persons of unsound mind are incompetent to make contract.
– Only 1 is correct.
– Only 2 is correct.
– Both 1 and 2 are correct.
– Both 1 and 2 are incorrect.

‘A’ a resident of Mumbai has a website ‘www.caravan.co.in’ launched in 2015. ‘A’ has a business of apparels in Mumbai having a trade mark ‘CARAVAN’. The website is accessible from Delhi. ‘B’ a resident of Hyderabad starts a website ‘www.caravaan.co.in’ in 2017 having the same business. The website of ‘B’ consists of a catalogue, a toll free number, and an email address. ‘A’ wants to file a suit for passing off of trade mark in Delhi.
1. ‘A’ can file a suit in Delhi on the basis of accessibility of website of ‘B’.
2. ‘A’ cannot file a suit merely on the accessibility of website.
3. ‘A’ cannot file a suit in Delhi as the website of ‘B’ is not interactive.
4. ‘A’ can file a suit if ‘B’ specifically targets the forum state resulting in harm to ‘A’ in forum State.

Choose the correct option from below:
– Only 1 is correct.
– Only 3 and 4 are correct.
– Only 4 is correct.
– 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

‘A’ has lent money to ‘P&Q’ firm engaged in the cement business and has agreed to take in addition to, or in place of his interest, a portion of the profits of the firm business. It can be said that
– ‘A’ is a partner as well as a creditor of the ‘P&Q’ firm.
– ‘A’ is a partner in ‘P&Q’ firm.
– ‘A’ is not a partner in the ‘P&Q’ firm.
– None of the choices

Minor can be admitted to the benefits of the firm
– with the consent of all the existing creditors of the firm.
– with the consent of all the partners.
– with the consent of the guardian of such minor.
– All of the choices

‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘C’. ‘B’ refuses to do so. Which offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been committed by ‘A’?
– No offence
– Abetting to commit murder
– Conspiracy to commit murder
– Attempt to murder

Which of the following goals are mentioned in the preamble of the UN Charter?
1. To save succeeding generations from the scourge of war.
2. To reaffirm faith in fundamental human rights, in the dignity and worth of the human person, in the equal rights of men and women and of nations large and small.
3. To promote social progress and better standards of life in larger freedom.
4. To promote democratic order in conflict-ridden societies.

Choose the correct option from below:
– Only 1 and 3 are correct.
– Only 1 and 2 are correct.
– Only 2 and 4 are correct.
– 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Which of the following is an example of intangible property?
– Sale Deed of land
– Pass book of a bank account
– An autobiographical work
– Indemnity Bond

Which of the following are jural correlatives in Hohfeld’s scheme of analysis of rights?
1. Right – Liberty
2. Power – Liability
3. Liberty – No – Right
4. Immunity – Disability

Choose the correct option from below:
– 1, 2, 3 and 4
– 1, 2 and 3
– 2, 3 and 4
– 1 and 2

Which of the following is not a body associated with the European Union (EU)?
– Council of the European Union
– Council of Europe
– European Commission
– European Council

Which of the following statement is incorrect as per the Constitution of India?
– The President of India exercises three functions, namely, summoning, prorogation and dissolution in relation to the Houses of Parliament.
– The President of India may address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together.
– Allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States shall be readjusted upon the completion of each census.
– The Speaker summons the House of People.

Which of the following statement is incorrect about the Attorney General for India?
– Attorney General is appointed by the President.
– Attorney General shall have right of audience in all courts in India in the performance of his duties.
– Attorney General shall be entitled to vote when he takes part in Parliamentary proceedings.
– Attorney General for India shall have the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament.

Which of the following statements is incorrect about the National Capital Territory of Delhi as per the Constitution of India?
– In the case of difference of opinion between the Lieutenant Governor and his Ministers on any matter, the Lieutenant Governor shall refer it to the President for decision.
– If any provision of law made by the Legislative Assembly with respect to any matter is repugnant to any provision of a law made by Parliament with respect to that matter, the law made by Parliament shall prevail.
– The Chief Minister and other Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Lieutenant Governor.
– The Union Territory of Delhi shall be called the National Capital Territory of Delhi.

Which of the following statement about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is incorrect?
– Second Schedule of the Constitution specifies the salary and service conditions of CAG.
– CAG is appointed by the President of India.
– CAG shall be removed in the manner like that of Judge of the Supreme Court.
– CAG submits the reports relating to the accounts of the State to the President of India.

Which of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
– There shall be a Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the President.
– All proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High Court shall be in the English language.
– The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script.
– Every person shall submit the representation for redress of grievances to the Union in the language of English or Hindi.

Which of the following presumptions/reasons best justify the validity of laws on hate speech?
1. Equality means uniformity.
2. Equality and liberty may sometimes become contradictory values.
3. Law should always prioritize equality over liberty.
4. Equality and liberty must be harmoniously construed.
– 2 and 4 are correct.
– 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
– 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
– 1 and 4 are correct.

Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India provides for the constitution of Panchayats?
– Article 243-F
– Article 243-H
– Article 243-B
– Article 243-E

Which of the following is true about the test of directness to determine remoteness of damage?
– If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, even if the actual damage is of a different kind than what was foreseeable.
– If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, only if the actual damage is of the same kind as was foreseeable.
– The defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act.
– The defendant is liable only for those consequences that are foreseeable by a reasonable man.

Match the following correctly:
Conference
(a) United Nations Sustainable Development Summit
(b) United Nations Conference on Environment & Development
(c) World Summit on Sustainable Development
(d) United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development

Outcome Document
1. Agenda 21
2. Transforming our world: the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development
3. “The Future We Want”
4. Johannesburg Declaration on Sustainable Development

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– 4, 1, 2, 3
– 2, 1, 4, 3
– 3, 2, 4, 1
– 1, 2, 3, 4

Assertion (A): A Governor is always supposed to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers in matter of appointment of the Chief Minister.
Reason (R): Like Article 74(1), Article 163(1) of the Constitution of India make it mandatory for the Governor to act in accordance with the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers.
Choose the correct option from below:
– Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
– Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
– (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
– (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

X Ltd. is an Indian company, other than a company referred to in sub rule (2) of Rule 2 of the Companies (Restriction on number of layers) Rules, 2017 which relates to the “Restriction on number of layers for certain classes of holding companies”. X Ltd. has a wholly owned Indian subsidiary Y Ltd. Y Ltd. has another Indian subsidiary Z Ltd. and it owns 60% of its total share capital. Y Ltd. now seeks to form another Indian subsidiary K Ltd. Which of the following is correct?
– Y Ltd. is permitted to have K Ltd. only as its wholly owned subsidiary and not otherwise.
– Y Ltd. is permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary.
– Y Ltd. is not permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary as this investment will be beyond the maximum permissible layers.
– Y Ltd. is not permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary as X Ltd. is not covered by the abovementioned sub rule (2)

Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
(a) Rukia Khatun v. Abdul Laskar
(b) Shayara Bano v. UOI
(c) Shamim Ara v. State of UP
(d) Danial Latifi v. UOI

List II
1. Divorced wife is entitled to Mahr. reasonable and fair provision for future
2. Un-communicated talaq is no talaq
3. Triple Talaq is unconstitutional
4. Reconciliation should precede Talaq

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– 4, 3, 2, 1
– 3, 1, 4, 2
– 4, 3, 1, 2
– 2, 3, 4, 1

Santosh, a jailor has charge of a prisoner Virender. Santosh with an intention to cause death, illegally omits to supply Virender with food. However, Virender does not die, though his strength is considerably reduced. Santosh is dismissed from the office and replaced by Geeta. Geeta, without collusion with Santosh, illegally omits to supply Virender with food, knowing fully well that she is likely thereby to cause Virender’s death. Virender dies of starvation.
– Both Geeta and Santosh are guilty of murder.
– Only Geeta is guilty of murder and Santosh is not guilty of any offence.
– Both Santosh and Geeta are guilty of attempt to murder.
– Geeta is guilty of murder and Santosh is guilty of attempt to murder.

The egg shell skull principle was applied in:
– Page v. Smith
– Watson v. Buckley and Osborne, Garrett and Co. Ltd
– Smith v. Leech Brain and Company
– Dulieu v. White

The term of copyright in cinematograph films shall subsist
– twenty five years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the film is published.
– sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the author dies.
– sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the film is published.
– None of the choices

The word “reasonable” was added in clause 2 of Article 19 of the Constitution of India through:
– Twenty-fourth Constitutional Amendment
– First Constitutional Amendment
– Sixteenth Constitutional Amendment
– None of the choices

The maxim de minimis non curatlex incorporated in which section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
– Section 95
– Section 84
– Section 94
– Section 86

The Haryana Panchayat Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015 included some categories which rendered persons falling in any of them, incapable of contesting Panchayat elections in the State of Haryana. This Amendment was declared constitutionally valid by the Supreme Court in Rajbala v. State of Haryana (2015). Who amongst the following are not included in those categories?
– All contestants must be matriculate.
– Persons against whom charges are framed in cases punishable not less than 10 years.
– Persons who have arrears of electricity bill.
– Persons who do not have functional toilet at their home.

The Constitutional validity of Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been challenged in which of the following cases:
– Shakti Vahini v. Union of India
– Binda Prasad v. State of M.P.
– Joseph Shine v. Union of India
– Dr. Subhash Kashinath Mahajan v. State of Maharashtra

The matrimonial guilt of desertion under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
1. commences when the fact of separation and the animus deserendi co-exist.
2. is a valid ground for divorce if the period of desertion is one year.
3. requires withdrawal from state of things as well as from place of residence.
4. is not complete but inchoate, until a suit is instituted.
– 2 and 4 are correct.
– 2 and 3 are correct.
– Only 4 is correct.
– 1 and 4 are correct.

The Information Technology Act, 2000 applies to which of the following transactions/documents?
– Trust
– Promissory note
– Electronic cheque
– All of the choices

Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

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