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DU LLM Entrance 2020 - 100 Mock Tests Series - Sample Papers, Previous Papers
  • 12 Previous Eleven years Question Papers, from 2008 to 2019
  • 50 Full Length Mock tests of 100 questions each - from a question bank of 9000 selected MCQs
  • 50 Mini Mock tests of 25 questions each - for quick practice sessions
  • Summarized overview of Important Jurisprudence topics
  • Overview of all Constitutional Amendments
  • Summary list of Important (Recent) Supreme Court Judgments
  • All Tests & Previous Papers are timed and have Negative marking for realistic simulation
  • Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
  • Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers and Desktops
  • Eighty Three (83) LawMint users were offered seats across various NLUs in CLAT PG 2019 - Including NLSIU, NALSAR & NLU Delhi

Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to
– Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds
– Privy purse sums of Rulers
– Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation
– Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases

Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
(a) Tulasamma v. Sesha Reddy
(b) John Vallmattom v. UOI
(c) R. Kantha v. UOI
(d) Sandhya v. Union of India

List II
1. Right of a daughter to reopen the partition is valid
2. A Hindu having a daughter cannot adopt another daughter under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act. 1956
3. Limited estate of a woman becomes absolute estate
4. Section 118 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 is unconstitutional
Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– 2, 4, 1, 3
– 3, 4, 2, 1
– 4, 3, 1, 2
– 3, 4, 1, 2

Match subject matters contained in List I with the provisions of the Constitution of India in List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List I
(a) Maternity relief
(b) Living wage
(c) Right to work
(d) Organisation of agriculture

List II
1. Article 41
2. Article 42
3. Article 43
4. Article 48

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– 4, 1, 3, 2
– 1, 3, 4, 2
– 2, 3, 1, 4
– 3, 4, 2, 1

Match List I containing cases with List II containing the important principles used in deciding these cases and choose the correct options from the codes given below:
List I
(a) Durga Prasad v. Baldeo
(b) Abdul Aziz v. Masum Ali
(c) Dutton v. Poole
(d) Tweddle v. Atkinson

List II
1. The other party has done nothing in response to unilateral promise and hence no consideration.
2. No stranger to the consideration can take advantage of a contract, although made for his benefit.
3. Act was not done at the desire of the promisor and hence no consideration.
4. The agreement may be enforced by the third person for whose benefit the agreement was made.

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– 3, 2, 1, 4
– 1, 3, 4, 2
– 3, 1, 4, 2
– 4, 1, 2, 3

Match the principles mentioned in List I with the associated cases in List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List I
(a) Neighborhood Rule
(b) Volenti non fit injuria
(c) Vis major
(d) Res ipsa loquitur

List II
1. Greenock Corp. v. Caledonian Rly.
2. Donoghue v. Stevenson
3. Achutrao Haribhau Khowda v. State of Maharashtra
4. Smith v. Charles Baker and Sons

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– 4, 3, 2, 1
– 3, 1, 2, 4
– 1, 3, 4, 2
– 2, 4, 1, 3

Match List I containing specific provisions of the Indian Contract Act. 1872 with List II containing corresponding subject matter and select the correct answers using the codes given below:
List I
(a) Section 2(a)
(b) Section 2(d)
(c) Section 2(i)
(d) Section 2(f)
(e) Section 2(e)

List II
1. Voidable Contract
2. Proposal
3. Agreement
4. Reciprocal Promises
5. Consideration

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
– 5, 2, 2, 1, 3
– 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
– 2, 5, 3, 4, 1
– 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

Match the general defences under the Indian Penal Code. 1860 in List I with the cases in List II and select the correct answer using codes given below:

List I
(a) Unsoundness of mind
(b) Intoxication
(c) Private defence
(d) Mistake of fact

List II
1. Basdev v. State of PEPSU
2. State of Orissa v. Ram Bahadur Thapa
3. Dahyabhai Chhaganbhai Thakker v. State of Gujarat
4. Deo Narain v. State of U.P.
Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– 3, 1, 4, 2
– 2, 3, 4, 1
– 1, 4, 2, 3
– 4, 2, 3, 1

Match List I containing cases with List II containing respective areas of contract and select the correct answers using the codes given below:

List I
(a) Balfour v. Balfour
(b) Felthouse v. Bindley
(c) Krell v. Henry
(d) Harvey v. Facey

List II
1. Frustration of contract
2. Invitation to receive offer
3. Intention to contract
4. Communication of acceptance to offeror

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– 3, 1, 4, 2
– 3, 4, 1, 2
– 3, 2, 1, 4
– 4, 2, 3, 1

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I
(a) Brenda Cossman
(b) Bhikhu Parekh
(c) Holmes
(d) J.S. Mill

List II
1. Rights
2. Feminist Legal Theory
3. Realism
4. Utilitarian

Choose the answer that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
– 2, 4, 3, 1
– 2, 1, 3, 4
– 4, 1, 2, 3
– 1, 2, 3, 4

Consider the following propositions:
1. A void marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
2. A void marriage is never a valid marriage and there is no necessity of any decree annulling it.
3. A voidable marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
4. Children born out of void marriage will get legal protection under section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act. 1955 on the basis of decree of nullity of such marriage.

– 2 and 3 are correct.
– 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
– 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
– 1 and 2 are correct.

Who among the following can remove the name of company from the register of companies on suo-motu basis in terms of section 248(1) of the Companies Act, 2013?
– Registrar of Companies
– Securities and Exchange Board of India
– National Company Law Tribunal
– Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Who amongst the following accepts that “Rights are important because they can be enforced”?
– Lloyd
– John Rawls
– Allen Buchanan
– Thomas Hobbes

Kelson’s theory of law suggests that
1. Legal order is a hierarchy of norms.
2. The basic content of the law is determined by Grundnorm (the basic norm).
3. Law is a command.
4. Pure theory of law deals with law as it ought to be.

– 2 and 3 are correct.
– 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
– 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
– 1 and 2 are correct.

Consider the following propositions:
1. A Muslim woman, on her husband’s death, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
2. A Muslim woman, on divorce, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
3. A Muslim woman, on divorce, has to observe Iddat if her marriage is irregular but consummated.
4. A Muslim woman, whose marriage is void but consummated, has to observe Iddat till delivery if she is carrying the child in her womb in case of her husband’s death.

– 2 and 3 are correct.
– Only 4 is correct.
– Only 2 is correct.
– 1 and 4 are correct.

Consider the following statements about the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS):
1. The Tribunal is composed of 21 independent judges.
2. It is based in Hamburg, Germany.
3. Dr. Neeru Chadha from India has been appointed as one of the Judges of the Tribunal in 2017.

– Only 1 is correct.
– Only 2 is correct.
– All of the choices are correct.
– Only 3 is correct.

Consider the following statements:
1. Under the UN Charter, the General Assembly may take up issues relating to maintenance of international peace and security, including the principles governing disarmament and the regulation of armaments.
2. Under the UN Charter, the Security Council has the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security.

– Only 1 is correct.
– Only 2 is correct.
– Both 1 and 2 are correct.
– Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements:
1. The motion for removal of a Supreme Court Judge submitted to the speaker of the Lok Sabha lapses with the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
2. The Inquiry Committee appointed under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 to ascertain the veracity of the motion for removal of the judge can be treated as a tribunal under Article 136 of the Constitution.

– Only 1 is correct.
– Only 2 is correct.
– Both 1 and 2 are correct.
– Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is an integral part of the UN Charter.
2. All members of the UN are ipso facto parties to the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
3. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is a separate treaty, and members of the UN have to separately ratify it in order to be bound by the same.

– Only 1 is correct.
– None of the choices is correct.
– 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
– 1 and 2 are correct.

Consider the following statements:
1. All robberies are either theft or extortion.
2. If A holds Z down and fraudulently takes Z’s money without Z’s consent. This is an example of theft as robbery.
3. A obtains property from Z by saying that his child is in the hands of my gang and will be put to death unless a ransom of 50 lakh rupees is paid. Z was however not put in fear of instant death of child. This is an example of extortion as robbery.

– Only 1 is correct.
– 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
– 1 and 2 are correct.
– 1 and 3 are correct.

Consider the following statements:
1. An agreement made without adequate consideration is void.
2. A written and registered agreement made on account of a natural love and affection between the close relatives is not valid without adequate consideration.

– Only 1 is correct.
– Only 2 is correct.
– Both 1 and 2 are correct.
– Both 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Consider the following statements:
1. There may be situations where only one party is bound to the terms of the contract.
2. In order to convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must be absolute and may be unqualified.
3. Death or insanity of the proposer is considered as good ground for revocation of proposal in all circumstances.

– Only 1 is correct.
– Only 2 is correct.
– 1 and 2 are correct.
– 1 and 3 are correct.

DU LLM Entrance 2020 - 100 Mock Tests Series - Sample Papers, Previous Papers
  • 12 Previous Eleven years Question Papers, from 2008 to 2019
  • 50 Full Length Mock tests of 100 questions each - from a question bank of 9000 selected MCQs
  • 50 Mini Mock tests of 25 questions each - for quick practice sessions
  • Summarized overview of Important Jurisprudence topics
  • Overview of all Constitutional Amendments
  • Summary list of Important (Recent) Supreme Court Judgments
  • All Tests & Previous Papers are timed and have Negative marking for realistic simulation
  • Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
  • Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers and Desktops
  • Eighty Three (83) LawMint users were offered seats across various NLUs in CLAT PG 2019 - Including NLSIU, NALSAR & NLU Delhi

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