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# Doctrine of Prospective overruling was approved for the first time in Constitutional interpretation in the case of
# The General Assembly of the U.N. cannot be said to be a ‘World Parliament’, because
# In which Section of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 the word ‘Domestic Violence’ has been defined?
# By which amendment Act schedule IX was inserted in Indian Constitution?
# Where the G-7 summit in June 2014 was held?
# Which convention was related to Prisoners of War, cruelty and collective penalties and formulated for providing medical and other facilities to the prisoners of war?
# Who has been awarded by highest award of Japan as ‘The Grand Warden of the order of Palonia flowers’ recently?
# ‘A person convicted by the court may be punished, only in accordance with the statute’, is the meaning of which maxim among the below?
# What is the right sequence of the following:
# Which Articles among the following were added by the 97th Amendment Act of Indian Constitution?
# In which of the following cases it has been observed that Prime Minister and Chief Minister of the States are subject to the Doctrine of Constitutional Trust?
# Auto limitation theory is related to
# Which of the Articles of the Constitution of India empowers the President to appoint acting Chief Justice of a High Court?
# Who shall be the Chairman of the Council of State in accordance with the provisions of the constitution of India?
# The Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Act was passed in the year?
# The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was enacted in India in the year
# The National Food Security Act was passed in the year
# Territorial water limit of India is
# Which one of the following rules is related to Extradition?
# Who defined Neutrality as ‘The attitude of impartiality adopted by Third states towards belligerents and recognized by belligerents,such attitude creating rights and duties between the impartial states and the belligerents’?
# Which of the following is not a specialized a agency of the United Nations?
# On whom the members of United Nations confer primary responsibility for the maintenance of International peace and security?
# Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961 came into force on
# Who made the observation ‘Jurisprudence is Lawyer’s extra version’?
# Which is not jural-correlative in the following pairs?
# The commission on the status of women was established by the
# Which of the following can enforce the judgment of the International Court of Justice?
# National Human Rights Commission in India came into force from
# The recommendations of the National Human Rights Commission is
# The head quarter of World Bank is situated at
# Who among the following was hanged by the British Government in regard to the ‘Kakori Conspiracy’?
# On whose recommendation amongst the following the Constituent Assembly was constituted?
# Ashok Mehta Committee was related to the
# Power to constitute new states and its determination of boundary vests in
# who is the Chairman of National Development Council?
# Carry Forward Rule’ was held as ultra-vires in the case of
# Hicklin Test’ under Article 19(2) is related to
# Dispute between states in India comes to the Supreme Court under
# Which amendment under the Indian Constitution provides for the reservation in Panchayats to the Women?
# To whom the President of India tenders his resignation?
# In which organ of United Nations, the membership has been enlarged twice by amending U.N. Charter
# The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on
# Which one of the following is not a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council?
# Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?
# The present Lok Sabha is
# Which of the following Amendments Act of the Constitution provided for the appointment of one person as Governor of two or more states?
# Who amongst the following has drafted the Preamble to the Indian Constitution
# In which of the following subject India has recently in 2014 signed an agreement with Russia
# In which of the following countries 8th ‘SAARC’ summit was held in 2014?
# In which of the following cases Supreme Court held that an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 is a ‘law’ under Article 13?
# Which one of the following section of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, deals with the ‘direction for accumulation’?
# Transfer of ownership of immovable property in exchange for a price paid or promised or partly paid or partly promised is called as
# Section 56 of the Transfer of property Act, 1882 deals with
# If the donee dies before the acceptance of the gift, the gift is
# Chapter VII of the Transfer of property Act, 1882 does not apply to transfer of property under
# Which one of the following is not a ground for determination of a lease
# Which one of the following is not an essential condition for application of rule of ‘ lis pendens’ under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
# Find our the incorrect answer from the following
# The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 came into force on
# According to Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the term ‘living person’ includes
# Which one of the following condition is invalid according to Section 10 of Transfer of Property Act, 1882
# Which one of the following is not an essential condition of Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
# ‘Once a mortgage, always a mortgage’ means
# Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with which following kinds of gift, namely
# Which one of the following sections provides the statutory duties of a mortgage in possession
# The provisions relating to ‘Onerous gift’ have provided under Transfer of Property Act, 1882
# The Transfer of Property (Amendment) Act, 2003, has amended which one of the following Sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
# The transferee of an actionable claim shall take it subject to all the liabilities and equities and to which the transferor was subject in respect thereof
# Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, does not apply to
# Under which one of the following schools of Muslim Law ‘Muta Marriage’ is recognized
# Where the person who performed ‘Nikah’ is dead, the proof of marriage will be given by the
# A Muslim widow remarries during the period of ‘iddat’, the marriage is
# ‘Musha’ under Muslim Law means
# Under Muslim Law, a bequest can validly be made to a child in womb, so long it is born from the date of will within the period of
# Creating a ‘Waqf’ means dedication of property to
# Shariat Act, 1937 contains only
# According to Hanafi Law, a mother is entitled to the custody (Hizanat) of a male child till the age of
# ‘Khiyar-ul-bulug’ means
# Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 specifies certain grounds of divorce which are available to
# In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court, has recognized the validity of adoption of a child even by a Muslim
# A Muslim wife’s right to ‘dower’ can be claimed as
# How much time of abstinence is required in ‘lla form’ to enforce dissolution of marriage under Muslim Law
# Undre Muslim Law the term ‘ Faskh’ is used to denote
# Under Muslim Law, in the matter of marriage, if there is a conflict between the views of minor and guardian, the law gives priority to
# A sickman makes a bequest, and being unable to speak from weakness gives a nod with his head, and he dies without regaining the power of speech, the bequest is
# A right of divorce by ‘Lian’ is available to the wife when the husband accuses the wife
# In the ‘Ahsan Form’ of talaq, the talaq is effective
# In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has held that the ‘three talaqs’ would be treated as a ‘Single talaq’ and not a valid talaq
# Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the maxim ‘SALUS POPULI SUPERMALEX’ is related to
# Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not deal with the criminal matters
# The term ‘Judicial notice’ under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, means
# Court can presume about the legality of digital signature on electronic record under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 when it is
# ‘Presumption of fact’ under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
# The contents of electronic records may be proved under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in accordance with the provisions of
# Electronic record presented for inspection of the court under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is
# Which of the following is correctly matched according to Indian Evidence Act, 1872
# ‘Written document must be proved writing only’, this maxim has been incorporated under which of the following sections of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
# Where the court has to form an opinion as to electronic signature of any person, the opinion of the certifying authority which has issued the electronic signature certificate is
# Which kind of agreement can be presumed by the court under Section 85A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
# Presumption of dowry death which is mentioned under Section 113B of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been incorporated by the Amendment Act of
# Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 a declaration made in couse of business is admissible under
# Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 questions relating to a matter not relevant to the suit or proceedings may be asked under
# Which kind of jurisdiction is not mentioned under Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
# Kaushal Rao v. State of Bombay, AIR 1958 SC 22 is related with which topic of the law of evidence?
# Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not expressly mention about
# The question is whether ‘A’ was ravished? The fact that without making a complaint, she said that the has been ravished is
# Where a document is executed in several parts, there
# ‘Nothing in Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 shall be taken to exempt any barrister, pleader, attorney or vakil from giving evidence of any matter of which he may be compelled to give evidence’ is provided by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, unde
# The fact of which the Court will judicial notice under Indian Evidence Act, 1872
# AS per preamble of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the purpose of this Act is
# In criminal proceedings against any person, the husband or wife of such person, shall be
# A contingent of police led by Sub-Inspector is on patrolling duty at night. They are attacked by two criminals in which one constable is severely injured and criminals escaped with their property. Here, a case can be made under Indian Penal Code 1860 for
# Revealing the identity or name of victim of rape is punishable under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code 1860
# Which of the following factors separate robbery from dacoity
# ‘A’ gave poisioned ‘Halwa’ (sweet dish) to ‘B’ with intention to kill him. ‘B’ ate one spoon and kept it on the side. ‘C’ who was sitting there, picked up and ate it. ‘C’ dies. Here ‘A’ is guilty of
# The maxim ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means
# The plea of ‘sudden and grave provocation’ under Section 300 Exception (1) of the Indian Penal Code 1860 is a
# ‘Common Intention’ and ‘similar intention’ was distinguished in the famous case of
# The ‘appropriate government’ may commute the sentence of death of and accused person to any other sentence
# ‘Necessity’ as a defence cannot be claimed when the act has been done
# ‘X’ who stole jewellery from a jeweller’s shop caused fear of instant hurt to ‘Z’ who tried to stop him while carrying away the stolen watch. Here ‘X’ can be held liable for the offence of
# Transgender has been recognised as third gender with all rights and a right to reservation by the Supreme Court in the case of
# A demand of request for sexual favour from a woman is punishable offence under Indian Penal Code 1860, under
# Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code 1860, under
# Which of the following is an offence of continuing under Indian Penal Code, 1860?
# The offence of destruction of electronic record to prevent it’s production as an evidence is punishable under Indian Penal Code, 1860 under
# The term ‘Harbour’ defined under Indian Penal Code 1860, does not include
# ‘A’ incites a dog to spring upon ‘Z’ without ‘Z’ consent with intention to annoy ‘Z’. Here ‘A’ has committed the offence of
# ‘A’ a police officer tortures ‘Z’ in order to induce ‘Z’ to confess that he has committed a crime. Here ‘A’ a guilty of the offence of
# Which of the following section have been inserted in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, namely
# The right of private defence does not extend to cause death of the offender, in which of the following offences
# When a women was taking bath in her bathroom, ‘X’ captures the image in his mobile and upload it on her facebook page. What offence has been committed by ‘X’?
# Which of the following is not a ‘sine qua non’ for making a person criminally liable
# ‘A’ under the influence of unsoundness attempt to kill ‘B’. ‘B’ in attempting to defend himself caused grievous hurt to ‘A’. Here
# Statements under Section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 are recorded by the police
# Under Section 190 of the Coke of Criminal Procedure 1973, cognizance of offence is taken by the
# During trial, statements of an accused person are recorded by the court under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 under
# Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, charge may be added or altered under
# Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, in a warrant case instituted on police-report, the trial begins when
# In which of the following trials under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, hearing of the accused n sentence is not necessary
# ‘A’ commits robbery on ‘B’ and in doing so voluntarily causes hurt to him. Whether ‘A’ may be separately charged under Section 323, 392, and 394 of the Indian Penal Code 1860?
# Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013, came into effect on
# Any dispute relating to the possession of immovable property under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is decided by the
# An accused person may be a competent witness in his own defence under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, in
# The classification of offences has been given under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, under
# Section 91 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, does not apply to
# A person can be summoned as a witness under Section 160 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, by
# Under which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a District Magistrate or Sub-Divisional Magistrate may prevent environmental pollution?
# Treatment of the victim has been incorporated under code of Criminal Procedure 1973 by Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, under
# In a First Information Report, an offence is cognizable and other is non-cognizable, the whole case shall be deemed to be
# Which of the following statements is true
# The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following
# Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a charge shall be written in the
# What is the maximum default sentence that can be awarded in case of non-payment of compensation under Section 358 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
# An order passed by a Magistrate under Section 446 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is appealable to
# If a person against whom an order under Section 133 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is made, appears and show cause against the order, the Magistrate Shall
# Which of the following is not an essential procedural requirement of Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 namely
# Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, provides for confirmation by the High Court an order of death penalty passed by Session court prior to it’s execution
# The term ‘Res Sub Judice’ means
# Under Section 100 of Civil Procedure Code 1908, ‘Section appeal’ lies to the High Court only on the ground of
# Which of the following person may not file an application for execution under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 namely
# Who may apply for reference under Section 113 of the Code of Civil Prodedure 1908
# ‘It is a statement of claim, a document by presentation of which the suit is instituted’. It is called as
# Order 42 of the Civil Procedure Code 1908 deals with the
# Which one of the following provision of Civil Procedure Code 1908 is related to affidavit
# Under which provision of CPC a plaint is rejected by the Courts in the absence of cause of action
# A ‘Caveat’ shall not remain inforce after the expiry of
# Under which provision of CPC attachment before judgement is provided
# Execution of decree for specific performance for restitution of conjugal rights or for an injunction is provided under Civil Procedure Code 1908, under
# Maximum amount which a court may order for payment of compensatory cost in case of false or vexatious claims of defences under Civil Procedure Code 1908, is
# A ‘Garneeshe order’ under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is issued to
# Which of the following order of CPC is related to ‘Set-off’ and ‘counter-claims’
# Which of the following is not correctly matched according to Civil Procedure Code, 1908
# Civil Procedure Code (Amendment) Act 2002, was enforced from
# During proceedings for execution of a decree, if question arises as whether any person is or is not the representative of a party, such question must be determined by
# Supplementary proceedings under Section 94 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 does not include
# Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 ‘Foreign Court’ means
# ‘Guardian at litem’ used under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 means
# Under which of the following section of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, divorce by mutual consent has been provided
# In which of the following reports, the Law Commission recommended the ‘Breakdown Principle’ to be accepted as the additional ground for divorce
# When a child of opposite sex is proposed to be adopted, the adopter must be senior to it in age by at least
# Under Hindu Adoption and maintenance Act, 1956 mandatory requirement for adoption of a child is
# Which of the following is not a ground for divorce under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
# According to court rulings, custody of a Hindu child upto the age of 5 years shall ordinarily be with the
# During the pendency of appeal against the decree of divorce, the parties
# A boy of 16 years of age may validly be taken into adoption
# Laxmikant Pandey v. Union of India, AIR 1984 SC lays down the rule regarding
# Registration of marriage has been made compulsory by Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 under
# Section 14 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 imposes a ban for filling petition for
# Every appeal from decrees or orders under section 28 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 shall be preferred within how many days from the date of decree or order
# Who is natural guardian of a married minor girl
# Which of the following ceremonies is/are obligatory under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 for a valid marriage
# Children born out of void or voidable marriage under Sections 11 and 12 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 are deemed to be
# A ‘Divorced’ Hindu wife can claim maintenance under which of the following Acts
# Rules relating to ‘Sapinda relationship’ are based on the principle of
# The ‘Breakdown theory’ of divorce is reflected by which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
# The petition for divorce by mutual consent may be presented according to Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, if the spouses have been living separately for a period of
# The property of a Hindu woman dying intestate shall devolve firstly upon
# Contingent interest in the property becomes a vested interest, on the happening of an uncertain event or when the happening of the event becomes
# Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is not applicable
We are shortly launching our Online Practice Packs for various State Judicial (Judge) Exams.
We will notify you as soon as we release the Practice Packs. Enter your name & email in the form below.