Maharashtra JMFC CJJD Preliminary 2024 and 2025 - 160 Mock Tests & Previous Question Papers
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These are questions from the Maharashtra MPSC Judicial Service JMFC / CJJD 2017 preliminary exam previous question paper.
The JMFC – Judicial Magistrate First Class / CJJD – Civil Judge Junior Division exam is conducted almost every year by the Maharashtra Public Service Commission; under the aegis of the Bombay High Court.
Refer to the other articles on LawMint.com for details about the syllabus, eligibility, domicile requirements, mock test series and other preparatory material for the JMFC or CJJD exams.
Check out the complete official syllabus, exam scheme and other important details for the Maharashtra Civil Judge Junior Division Judicial Magistrate First Class Preliminary Examination in this article : https://lawmint.com/judicial-services/mpsc-maharashtra-civil-judge-jmfc-syllabus-scheme-details/
Note : This is not the complete question paper. This post contains only the question headers for reference.
The complete papers, with the official answer keys are available for our registered users of our online practice packs for the Judicial Services Exam preparation.
1. Remedy of rectification is available under Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act relates to
2. Relief of recession is granted in cases
3. Section 12 of the Specific Relief Act permits grant of specific performance of part of contract
4. Court is not bound to grant specific performance of the contract, merely because it is lawful to do so and can properly exercise discretion not to grant decree for specific performance of contract if
5. Where premises are let out for residential purpose and tenant dies who amongst the following can be termed as tenant under Section 7(15) of the Maharashtra Rent Control Act 1999?
6. Choose the correct option.
I) The Maharashtra Rent Control Act 1999 shall not apply to any premises belonging to Government or Local Authority. ;
II) The Maharashtra Rent Control Act 1999 shall not apply to the Public Limited Company having paidup share capital of less than one crore rupees.
7. In a contract of guarantee
8. Where a contract to give time to the principal debtor is made by the creditor with the.third person and not with the principal debtor the
9. A and B agree that A shall pay Rs. 1,000 to B for which B shall afterwards deliver to A either rice or smuggled opium.
10. Which one of the following is not correct ?
11. Decree shall be deemed to include the rejection of plaint and the determination of any question within the meaning of Sec. 144 of The Civil Procedure Code.
12. Whether an issue heard and finally decided by a competent court of limited jurisdiction, shall operate as Res-Judicata in a subsequent suit not withstanding that such court of limited jurisdiction was not competent to try such suit ?
13. The provisions of Res-Judicata also apply to the execution proceedings of a decree.
14. Under which provision of Civil Procedure Code is a suit to set aside decree on the ground of lack of territorial jurisdiction barred ?
15. A person detained in civil prison in execution of a decree can be released before the expiration of period of detention order
16. In a civil suit where a decree is silent as regards future interest, future interest shall be deemed to have been refused and a separate suit shall not lie.
17. Where defendant is confined in prison, the suit summons shall be served upon him
18. An aggrieved informant on refusal on the part of officer incharge of a Police Station to record information regarding cognizable offence may
19. For offence, punishable with fine only the period of limitation for taking cognizance is
20. As per Sec. 357 of Criminal Procedure Code 1973, order to pay compensation can be passed
21. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, service of summons can be made on any person other than a witness.
22. The compounding of offence under Section 320 of Criminal Procedure Code before framing of charge shall have the affect of
23. For the purpose of period of limitation u/sec. 468 of Criminal Procedure Code the period of limitation in relation to the offences which are tried together shall be determined with relevance to
24. Sec. 129 of The Indian Evidence Act 1872 states that no one shall be compelled to disclose to the court any confidential communication which has taken place between
25. Under Section 114 of The Indian Evidence Act 1872 court may presume the existence of any fact which it thinks likely to have happened, regard being had to the common course of
26. The period of 30 years as contemplated u/sec. 90 of The Indian Evidence Act 1872 to be computed from the date of execution of the document upto the time
27. The Doctrine “Falsus in uno, falsus in omnibus”
28. Hostile witness is one who
29. Which of the following is an exception to the hearsay evidence ?
30. Which of the following is not secondary evidence of the original ?
31. Smoking in public place is violation of Fundamental Right under
32. Section 5 of Limitation Act applies to
33. An application for bringing legal representative of a party has to be filed
34. In a case where an application for leave to sue or appeal as a pauper has been bonafidely filed and rejected by the court, the period of limitation for the suit or appeal shall be computed from the date
35. Period of limitation means
36. A hangman who hangs a prisoner pursuant to the order of a court is exempted from criminal liability under Indian Penal Code under
37. No transfer of property can operate to create an interest which is to take effect after the life time of one or more person living at the date of such transfer and minority of some person who shall be living at the expiration of that period. It is
38. Under the Transfer of Property Act 1882 the term “attested” means
39. Fill in the blank by appropriate option. Every transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor shall be _______ at the option of any creditor so defeated or delayed.
40. A gift of a thing to two or more donees, of whom one does not accept it, is
41. Which of the following is not required for a valid acknowledgement ?
42. Dacoity is committed when
43. Which of the following is not a correct statement ?
44. Within the meaning of Indian Penal Code public means
45. Whoever does anything with intension of causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another person is said to do that thing
46. Specific relief can be granted.
47. Under the Specific Relief Act a suit for recovery of possession can be filed
48. To maintain a suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act the possession must be
49. An order or decree under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act is
50. As per Sec. 16(c) of the Specific Relief Act specific performance of contract cannot be enforced in favour of a person who fail to aver and prove that he performed dr has been ready and willing to perform the essential terms of contract of his part. For the purpose of this section where the contract involves the payment of money
51. Decree for eviction on the ground of bonafide requirement may not be passed even after the bonafide requirement is proved by the landlord if
52. Any agreement for letting of any premises entered into between landlord and tenant as required under Section 55 of the Maharashtra Rent Control Act 1999 be
53. A landlord shall not be entitle to recovery of possession so long as the tenant
54. A tenant cannot be evicted even if he erects a permanent structure if
55. Essential supply or services as contemplated u/sec. 24 of the Maharashtra Rent Control Act includes
56. Liability of a partner for acts of the partnership firm is
57. As per Section 69 of the Indian Partnership Act there is no bar for a firm in respect of
58. When no provision is made by contract between the partners, for the duration of their partnership, the partnership is
59. A warranty is a stipulation collateral to the main purpose of the contract
60. According to the provisions of Sale of Goods Act not withstanding that the goods may have passed to the buyer, the unpaid seller of the goods has
61. In execution of decree for payment of maintenance amount salary can be attached to the extent of
62. A suit to obtain an urgent relief against Government or any Public Office may be instituted in respect of an act purporting to be done by said Public Officer in his official capacity
63. Caveat shall not remain in force after expiry of
64. Where a plaint has been rejected plaintiff on same cause of action
65. Attachment before judgment, in a suit dismissed for default or non-prosecution, revives automatically on restoration of the suit.
66. If the accused is, by reason of a previous conviction liable, either to enhanced punishment of a different kind, such offence
67. Wife shall not be entitled to receive maintenance amount from the husband under Section 125 of Criminal Procedure Code if
68. In a case of allegations of defamation of a person, who is under the age of 18 years or a lunatic or is from sickness or infirmity, unable to make a complaint or.a woman who as per local custom ought not to be compelled to appear in public, a complaint can be filed by
69. An application for maintenance u/sec. 125 of Criminal Procedure Code by father against his son has to be filed in the District
70. Court can take cognizance of the offence under Section 498 A of Indian Penal Code even if the complaint is made by
71. Statement of a witness recorded under Section 164 of Criminal Procedure Code can be used
72. Fill in the blank : Where any electronic record purporting or proved to be of _______ years old is produced from proper custody, the court may presume that the electronic signature purported to be of a particular person was so affixed by him or any person authorised by him in his behalf.
73. Confession of one accused is admissible against co-accused
74. Cognizable offence means
75. Presumption u/sec. 90 of The Indian Evidence Act as to due execution and attestation of the document is attached to
76. Which of the following is false ?
77. On April 2008 Supreme Court of India in which of the following cases upheld the O.B.C. quota in Central Educational Institutions clearing the way for reservations of 27 percent for Backward Classes ?
78. Art. 21 of The Constitution of India deal with which subject ?
79. In which of the following cases it was held that telephone tapping is invasion of right of privacy ?
80. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
81. In the Preamble of Indian Constitution, provision of liberty consists of
82. Which is the Fundamental Duty as provided in Art. 51 A of the Constitution of India ?
83. Uniform Civil Code for citizens is provided in Indian Constitution as per
84. Part IVA regarding Fundamental Duties was added in the Constitution of India by
85. Which is not a necessary qualification to be a President of India ?
86. Any claim by way of set-off shall be treated as a separate suit and be deemed to have been instituted on the date as the suit in which the set-off is pleaded.
87. A suit is decreed on 1.4.15 and decree was prepared by the court on 16.4.15. Application for copy of decree was filed on 5.5.15. Whether the period taken by the court for preparing decree can be excluded while computing the period of limitation for appeal ?
88. In a suit or application based on fraud or mistake the period of limitation shall not begin to run until
89. A fresh period of limitation begins to run every moment of the time during which it continues, in case of
90. At the determination of the period limited by Limitation Act to any person for institution of a suit for possession of any property
91. Which of the following is not a general exception ?
92. Which of the following is true ?
93. Culpable homicide is defined in Section
94. Which one of the following statement is correct ?
95. Whoever by force compels any person to go from any place is said to
96. Which of the following is right under the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 ?
97. A lease of immovable property for agricultural or manufacturing purposes shall be terminable on the part of either lessor or lessee by notice of
98. Under Section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act “Rent” means
99. According to the Transfer of Property Act “Instrument” means
100. Where an immovable property is transferred, in which a third person has a right to maintenance or a provision for advancement or marriage from the profit of said property of which transferee has a notice
Maharashtra JMFC CJJD Preliminary 2024 and 2025 - 160 Mock Tests & Previous Question Papers
- 100 Full Length Mock Tests - with unlimited practice
- 60 Topic wise Mock Tests covering all the topics in the syllabus
- Previous Question Papers - with official answer keys
- Downloadable PDF copies of all bare acts as per syllabus
- Database of over 15000+ MCQs
- Mock Tests designed as per latest syllabus and pattern
- Access valid for one year from date of purchase
- Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
- Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers, Laptops, Desktops and Tablets
