Odisha OPSC OJS Judicial Prelims 2024 and 2025 - 155 Mock Tests & Previous Question Papers
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Note : This is not the complete question paper. This post contains only the question headers for reference. The complete papers, with the official answer keys are available for our registered users of LawMint.com online practice packs for the Judicial Services Exam preparation.
# Under the Indian Penal Code, abetment is constituted
# The distinction between Sections 299 and 300 IPC was made clear by
# Which Section deals with dowry death?
# Grievous Hurt means
# Whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed is
# Whoever by force compels or by any deceitful means induces any person to go from any place is
# The solemn resolution in the Preamble of our Constitution is made in the name of
# One of the remedies for false imprisonment is
# Every citizen of India has a right to contest In election unless disqualified is
# Article 39A of the Constitution of India deals with
# The members of the UPSC are appointed by
# Which one of the following amendment accorded procedure to Directive Principle over Fundamental Rights?
# The oath is administered to the President of India by:
# The special provisions to Finance Bills is provided under the Constitution of India
# Suspension of provisions of Article 19 during Emergency is dealt in
# Provisions as lo the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes are in
# Section 89 of the CPC was inserted in
# For instituting a suit against the government, notice should be given before
# Decision on question of limitation
# The Code of Civil Procedure
# Choose the most appropriate answer: A judgment debtor
# Choose the most appropriate answer:
# Precept means
# Garnishee means
# Suo Motu means
# Actus Curiae Neminem gravabit means:
# Section 75 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
# The term admission is defined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in
# Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
# According to Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive, is called a
# The term ‘Examination-in-chief’ has been defined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in
# The examination of a witness by the adverse party shall be called his
# Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
# A witness who is unable to speak is called as
# Actus me invito factus non est mens actus means
# Robbery is an aggravated form of
# Peron who may be said to be of unsound minds
# When two or more persons by fighting in a public place disturb the public peace is
# The Court of a Magistrate of first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding
# Under which Section of Cr.P.C. a police officer can arrest a person without an order from a Magistrate and without warrant?
# Power to search a place is provided under
# Which of the following is process to compel the appearance of persons before the criminal courts?
# Under which Section of Cr.P.C. a person who Is avoiding execution of a warrant may be proclaimed absconder?
# Any dispute relating to possession of Immovable property is decided by
# The recording of the statements by a police officer during investigation is provided by
# Under Section 167, the Magistrate can order detention in
# Which of the following Sections does not provide for joinder of charges?
# Which Section is based on the maxim ‘Nemo debet bis vexari prop eadem cause’ i.e. a man shall not be twice vexed for one and the same cause?
# Chapter V of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
# Section 62 of the Indian Evidence-Act, 1872 deals with
# Which of the following is transferable property?
# Where mortgagee Is entitled to enjoy the benefits of the mortgaged property in lieu of Interest on debt, the mortgage Is called
# Which of the following in not a duty of the seller?
# Consideration for lease is
# A person who projects himself to be owner when he is not is called
# The period of limitation for filing of a suit on the basis of a promissory note from the date of its execution is
# The limitation period in a suit by a surety against a co-surety when the surety pays anything in excess of his own share is
# What is the limitation period in a suit by a landlord to recover possession from a tenant after the date the tenancy is determined?
# For a review of Judgment by a Court other than the Supreme Court, from the date of decree or order, the limitation is
# In computing the period of limitation for an appeal, a review or revision, the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree of the order appealed against shall be excluded under
# Time requisite’ under Section 12(2) of Ihe Limitation Act means
# Section 17 of the Limitation Act takes within its ambit
# Section 17 of the Limitation Act does not take within its ambit
# The period of limitation for setting aside a sale on execution of a decree is
# Which of the following amount to presenting civil proceedings with ‘due diligence and in good faith’ within the meaning of Section 14 of the Limitation Act?
# In which of the following cases the Court by going negatively with women’s right to property, disqualified the daughter-in-laws right to father-In-laws property on the ground that the son had murdered his own father?
# Presumption that the younger survived the elder under Section 21 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a
# Which Section of the following of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 treats agnates and cognates and male and female heirs equally?
# ‘A’ who is governed by Indian Succession Act, executes an instrument purporting to his will, but he does not understand the nature of the instrument, nor the effect of its provision. This instrument is
# In which Section of the following of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 it is provided that where a bequest is made to a person by a particular description, and there is no person In existence at the testator’s death who answers the description, the bequest
# ‘A’ by his will, bequeaths to ‘5’ the sum of Rs. 5,000 and afterwards in the same will repeats the bequest in the same words. ‘B’ is entitled to
# Schedule V of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 deals with
# Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 applies to
# A suit of Possession under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, can be filed within
# Under the Specific Relief Act, a suit for Recovery of Possession can be filed
# Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act fixes the time limit for discovery of mistake or fraud to be
# A claim for damages in a suit for injunction can be laid down ‘Act
# Section 11 of the Specific Relief Act, 1930 provides for
# Obligation under Specific Relief Act
# Under the Specific Relief Act, the declaratory decree can
# Under Section 12(2) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 part performance of a Contract can be enforced by
# Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act can be invoked
# In a suit under 6 of the Specific Relief Act, the Court can
# The term ‘donation mortis causa’ refers to
# Right of redemption arises in the case of
# Which of the following is a doctrine of equity?
# Which of the following deals with the doctrine of election?
# To convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must be
# Contracts of Adhesion are
# A agrees with B to discover treasure by magic. The agreement is
# If the goods arc bailed for hire, the bailor is responsible for damages for the faults in the bailed goods which
# A contract of guarantee may be
# If the promisor absolutely repudiates the contract prior to the promised date of performance, it is
# If a person is employed by and acting under the control of the original agent in the business of agency, he is known as
# A contract to pay B, Rs. 20,000 if B’s house is burnt, it is a
# To create an agency
# consideration is unlawful, is
# Heir’ has been defined under
# Hindu Succession Amendment Act, 2005 came into effect on
Odisha OPSC OJS Judicial Prelims 2024 and 2025 - 155 Mock Tests & Previous Question Papers
- 100 Full Length Mock Tests - with unlimited practice
- 55 Topic wise Mock Tests covering all the topics in the syllabus
- Previous Question Papers - with official answer keys
- Downloadable PDF copies of all bare acts as per syllabus
- Database of over 15000+ MCQs
- Mock Tests designed as per latest syllabus and pattern
- Access valid for one year from date of purchase
- Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
- Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers, Laptops, Desktops and Tablets
