Maharashtra JMFC CJJD Preliminary 2024 and 2025 - 160 Mock Tests & Previous Question Papers
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These are questions from the Maharashtra MPSC Judicial Service JMFC / CJJD 2015 preliminary exam previous question paper.
The JMFC – Judicial Magistrate First Class / CJJD – Civil Judge Junior Division exam is conducted almost every year by the Maharashtra Public Service Commission; under the aegis of the Bombay High Court.
Refer to the other articles on LawMint.com for details about the syllabus, eligibility, domicile requirements, mock test series and other preparatory material for the JMFC or CJJD exams.
Check out the complete official syllabus, exam scheme and other important details for the Maharashtra Civil Judge Junior Division Judicial Magistrate First Class Preliminary Examination in this article : https://lawmint.com/judicial-services/mpsc-maharashtra-civil-judge-jmfc-syllabus-scheme-details/
Note : This is not the complete question paper. This post contains only the question headers for reference.
The complete papers, with the official answer keys are available for our registered users of our online practice packs for the Judicial Services Exam preparation.
1. When did the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 come into force ?
2. How can an arrest be made by a police officer ?
a. By handcuffing the person to be arrested
b. By touching the body or giving oral intimation of arrest in the case of a woman
c. By confining the person to be arrested
d. By All of the choices methods
3. The Chief Judicial Magistrate is empowered to impose a sentence of imprisonment
4. Right of the accused to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours is a
5. When information relating to the commission of cognisable offence is received by the officer in-charge of a Police Station
6. Which of the following is a correct statement ?
7. Statement of the accused under Section 313 of the Criminal Procedure Code is
8. ‘In camera’ proceeding means
9. A Judicial Magistrate First Class can order payment as compensation to the person who sustained loss or injury by reason of the act for which the accused has been convicted:
10. The jurisdiction and powers of Judicial Magistrate
11. From an order of an acquittal by the Magistrate in a complaint case, appeal lies with the
12. Period of limitation for taking cognizance, if an offence is punishable with a fine only, is
13. In a bailable offence, the accused can claim his release on bail
14. ‘Legal Representative’ means
15. First date of hearing of the suit is
16. ‘Precept’ is an order issued by the court which passed the decree and addressed to
17. Defendant can be arrested before judgement in a suit for
18. Executing Court has to decide under Section 47 of the Civil Procedure Code
19. Which of the following cannot be attached in execution of decree ?
20. Service of the summons/notice by advertisement in a newspaper is
21. Inherent powers of the Civil Court are
22. Temporary injunction under Rule 2 Order XXXIX of the Criminal Procedure Code can be granted
23. Suit is liable to be dismissed when there is
24. Defendant can set up counter-claim against the claim of plaintiff
25. ‘Actio personalis moritur cum persona’ means
26. ‘Audi alteram partem’ means
27. ‘Ubi jus ibi remedium’ means
28. Which of the following statements of the witness is ‘not admissible’ ?
29. The terms of the written contract can be proved by
30. The expression ‘Res gestae’ means
31. The expression, ‘Dying declaration’ means
32. ‘Confession’ means
33. ‘Judgement in rem’ is
34. Which of the following is not an ‘evidence’ within the meaning of Section 3 of the Evidence Act ?
35. Opinion of the elderly persons in the society is
36. Print-out of a photo taken with digital camera is
37. What is the object of ‘contradicting the witness’ with his previous inconsistent statement ?
38. Which of the following is an accurate proposition ?
39. Adverse inference may be drawn against the party when
40. When legal provision provides that court shall presume a fact, it is
41. Which of the following words is not related to the principle of’mens rea’ ?
42. Nothing is an offence when it is done by a child under
43. The accused stabbed a man who was sexually assaulting her and she caused his death. She is
44. Making or publishing any imputation on someone who is dead
45. Causing death by rash and negligent act is
46. Dislodging a tooth by a blow of fist is
47. Theft is said to have been committed when the accused
48. A man allowed his cart to proceed unattended along the road. It ran over a boy causing fracture of his leg. He has committed an offence
49. A soldier fired on a mob under the orders of his superior officer and caused death of a person. He has committed
50. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, ‘imprisonment’ in default of payment of fine
51. The maxim, ‘Ignorantia juris non excusat’, means
52. Robbery is an aggravated form of
53. Right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution is a
54. Which of the following is not a right under Article 19(1) of the Constitution ?
55. Judiciary in India is
56. Supreme Court issues prerogative writs under Article
57. What are the qualifications for appointment as a Judge of a High Court ?
58. Which provision of the Constitution recognises the right of the accused to remain silent as a Fundamental Right ?
59. ‘Habeas corpus’ means
60. Fundamental Rights are found in
61. Chief Justice of India and other Judges of the Supreme Court continue to hold office until they attain the age of
62. Which of the following territories are under the jurisdiction of the High Court of Bombay ?
63. Executive Powers of the Union of India vest in the
64. ‘Amicus Curiae’, means
65. The expression, ‘Escheat’, means
66. Agreement in restraint of marriage of anybody is
67. A contract of insurance is a
68. Voidable contract is
69. The expression ‘liquidated damages’ means
70. B offers A for his car Rs. 2,00,000 and the car is to be delivered on the next day by A’s driver. B gave a post-dated cheque of next month. A accepted the offer and the cheque. When would that car become a property of B ?
71. Which of the following agreements is not a contract for unlawful consideration or object ?
a. A promises to maintain B’s child and B promises to pay Rs. 5000 per month to A.
b. A promises B to drop a prosecution he has instituted for robbery and B promises to pay restoration value of the things robbed.
c. A promises to pay Rs. 50,000 to B, if he procures an employment in the public service.
d. A agreed to let his house for monthly rent of Rs. 5000 to B, wherein the latter would run a gambling business.
72. Oral contract is a
73. Finder of the goods becomes
74. Who amongst the following is not competent to contract ?
75. In a suit for possession of immovable property, when the plaintiff is alleged to have dispossessed without due process of law, the court has to decide whether the
76. In a suit for specific performance of contract, the court may award compensation
77. Which of the following propositions is wrong ? Injunction should not be granted
78. Who amongst the following cannot sue for specific performance of a contract ?
79. Jurisdiction of the court to enforce specific performance of contract is
80. Temporary Mandatory injunction can be granted
81. Which of the following cannot be transferred ?
a. A chance of succession after the death of kinsman
b. An easement apart from the dominant heritage
c. Actionable claim
d. Goodwill of the business
82. Which of the following documents requires attestation by two witnesses ?
83. ‘Tenant holding over’, is
84. Who, other than the mortgagor, has a right to sue for redemption of mortgage ?
85. When claim made in a suit is barred by law of limitation
86. Suit for recovery of price of the goods sold on credit is to be filed
87. Application for execution of decree other than the injunction is to be made within
88. What is the effect of acknowledgement of debt after the period of limitation ?
89. For bringing on record Legal Representatives of the deceased party, application is to be made within
90. Suit for specific performance of contract is to be filed within
91. Partnership is
92. When is partnership called a ‘partnership at will’ ?
93. ‘Caveat emptor’, means
94. Seller has right of stoppage of goods in transit when
95. Maharashtra Rent Control Act is not applicable to the premises let to
96. Who would be the tenant of residential premises after the death of the tenant ?
97. The ‘Court’ under Section 33 of the Maharashtra Rent Control Act is
98. Under the provisions of the Maharashtra Rent Control Act transfer of tenanted premises is
99. No suit for eviction, on the ground of arrears of rent, can be filed
100. Is an agreement of tenancy on leave and licence compulsorily required to be registered ?
Maharashtra JMFC CJJD Preliminary 2024 and 2025 - 160 Mock Tests & Previous Question Papers
- 100 Full Length Mock Tests - with unlimited practice
- 60 Topic wise Mock Tests covering all the topics in the syllabus
- Previous Question Papers - with official answer keys
- Downloadable PDF copies of all bare acts as per syllabus
- Database of over 15000+ MCQs
- Mock Tests designed as per latest syllabus and pattern
- Access valid for one year from date of purchase
- Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
- Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers, Laptops, Desktops and Tablets
