Himachal Pradesh Judicial Services Exam II HP PCS J 2007

Note : This is not the complete question paper. This post contains only the question headers for reference. The complete papers, with the official answer keys are available for our registered users of LawMint.com online practice packs for the Judicial Services Exam preparation.

# Section 10 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides for:

# In cases of specific performance of a contract, the rights of the parties are governed by the principle of:

# Specific performance of a contract:

# Specific performance of a part of the contract, has been dealt with under:

# For Section 12(4) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, to apply:

# Contracts not specifically enforceable have been enumerated in:

# Section 9 of the specific Relief Act, 1963, provides for:

# The circumstances under which a perpetual injunction can be granted have been enumerated under:

# Besides the courts of small causes and the courts established under any other enactment, the number of classes of subordinate Civil Courts provided under the Himachal Pradesh Courts Act, 1976, are:

# Under the Himachal Pradesh Courts Act, 1976, an appeal from decree or order of Civil Judge shall lie to the District Judge, where the value of the original suit, in which the decree/order was made did not exceed:

# The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 was amended by the Civil Procedure Code (Amendment) Act, 2002, with the object to:

# Which of the following is not a decree?

# Foreign court under Section 2(5) of CPC means

# Who amongst the following is not a public officer within the meaning of Section 2(17) fo CPC?

# Pecuniary jurisdiction of the court has been described under:

# Principle of res-judicata applies:

# Under Order IV Rule 1, sub rule (1) of CPC, a suit is instituted when:

# Order VIII Rule 1 of the CPC mandates that the defendant shall file the written statement of his defence within:

# Pleading must state:

# Copy of the Judgement shall be made available to the parties, under Order XX, Rule 1(2) of CPC:

# Which of the following, in respect of set-off is correct?

# An ex-parte decree can be set aside:

# Precept is:

# Pauper appeals have been provided under:

# For presumption of death under Section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the person is shown to be not heard for a period of:

# Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, provides for:

# Presumption as to dowry death is contained in:

# Acommunication made to the spouse during marriage, under Section 122 of the Evidence Act:

# An accomplice is a competent witness:

# Cross-examination of a witness:

# The provision relating to ‘hostile witness’ is provided in:

# Which section of the Indian Evidence Act was amended by the Criminal law (Amendment) Act, 2005?

# Admission:

# Confession of an accused is irrelevant and inadmissible when made:

# To be admissible, a dying declaration:

# The opinion of experts is not relevant:

# In relation to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which of the following statements is not correct?

# A is accused of the murder of B. At his trial, which of the following will not be a fact in issue?

# Mark the incorrect statement:

# Mark the incorrect statement:

# Which is not the main principle that underlies the Law of Evidence?

# That there are certain things arranged in a certain order in a certain place:

# The question is, whether A was ravished. The fact that without making a complaint, she said that she had been ravished:

# A is accused of murdering B. The following facts are constructed in the case:

# Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a suit for recovery of possession can be filed:

# Specific relief can be granted for:

# A suit for possession of immovable property, under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, can be filed within:

# The question of title is:

# Section 114 of the Evidence Act, 1872 provides for certain:

# Suit under Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, is not competent:

# The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 applies to:

# Which of the following statement is incorrect?

# The provision for the maintenance of illegitimate children of a Hindu is contained in:

# Mother of a Hindu child, was declared by the Apex Court, to be the natural guardian, during the life time of his/her father, in:

# Under which Section of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a female Hindu is declared to be full and absolute owner of property possessed by her?

# The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 mentions:

# The expression ‘appointed day’ for the purpose of the Himachal Pradesh Urban Rent Control Act, 1987 is:

# The term ‘building’ under the Himachal Pradesh Urban Rent Control Act, 1987, does not include:

# Fair rent of a building or rented land, under the Himachal Pradesh Urban Rent Control Act, 1987, is determined by the Rent Controller:

# Provisions as to eviction of tenants, under the Himachal Pradesh Urban Rent Control Act, 1987, are described in:

# A proposal as defined under Section 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, is:

# An agreement enforceable by law at the instance of one party and not of other party is called:

# Communication of acceptance is complete an against the proposer:

# When the consent of a party to a contract is caused by coercion, the contract is:

# Which Section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, deals with agreements in restraint of legal proceedings?

# Which one of the following does not amount to fraud?

# If the time of performance of the contract is the essence of the contract and the promisor fails to perform the contract by the specified time:

# Novation of a contract means:

# Claim for necessaries of life supplied to a minor under Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

# Provision for the prevention of unjust enrichment of a person is contained in:

# The law relating to tender of performance is contained in:

# Presumption of undue influence can be raised in cases of:

# Which is correct of the law of limitation?

# The Limitation Act, 1963 applies to:

# Delay in filling the suit:

# The provisions of Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963 are:

# Section 6 of the Limitation Act, 1963 can be availed by:

# The fraud contemplated by Section 17 of the Limitation Act, 1963, is that of:

# Period during which proceedings stand stayed by an injunction or order is excluded:

# Under Section 25 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the easement rights over the property belonging to the Government are acquired by continous and uninterrupted user:

# A suit for possession of immovable property based on title can be filed within:

# Acknowledgement after the period of limitation:

# Under Section 19 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the part payment extends the period of limitation:

# Period of limitation for execution of a decree is:

# The Period of limitation for a review of the judgment is:

# A contract can be discharged:

# In case of joint promise, generally the performance must be by:

# Secion 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 applies:

# The nature of a wagering agreement was explained in:

# Under Section 3 of the Transfer of property Act, 1882, immovable property includes:

# The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 has no application in case a:

# Rule against perpetuity is described in:

# A transfer of immovable property made without consideration with intent to defraud a subsequent transferee is:

# Transfer of tangible immovable property of the value of Rs. 100/- can be made:

# In case of usufructuary mortgage, the mortgagee:

# Rule relating to marshalling securities is described in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, under:

# ‘A’ lets a house to ‘B’ for five years. ‘B’ under-lets the house to ‘C’ at a monthly rent of Rs. 100/-. The five years expire, but ‘C’ continues in possession of the house and pays the rent to A. What are the rights of ‘C’ ?

# Which of the following conditions is exempted, if the custom governing each of the parties to a Hindu marriage, so permits:

# In a proceeding, on a petition for dissolution of marriage, under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the court cannot pass instead a decree for judicial separation, if the ground for seeking divorce is that the other party, after the solemnization of the marri

# Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, was upheld as not violative of Article 21 of the Constitution of India in:

# The power to try any forest-offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months, is vested with:

# Any person contravening any rule under the Indian Forest Act, 1927, for the contravention of which, no special penalty is provided, shall be punishable with:

# The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 was passed by the Union Parliament:

# The control of sanctuaries, under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, is vested with:

# After the commencement of the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2002, a zoo shall not be established without obtaining the prior approval of:

# The offence of dishonour of cheques, for insufficiency, etc., of funds, in the account of the drawer, is punishable with:

# A cheques can be presented, within a period of six months from the date on which it is drawn:

# If the person committing an offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, is a company, the following shall be deemed to be guilty of the offence:

# A complaint, against the drawer of a cheques, dishonoured for insufficiency, etc., of funds, must be made:

# Plea Bargaining, a new chapter, added in the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2005, is contained in:

# The criminal liability arises in:

# ‘Ignorantia facit excusat’ maxim means:

# The maxim ‘Non Compos mentis’ means:

# How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

# ‘A’ not knowing, whether it is loaded or not, pulls the trigger of a gun pointing at ‘B’, ‘B’ is shot dead. ‘A’ can:

# A and Z agree to fence with each other for amusement. This agreement implies the consent of each to suffer any harm which, in the course of such fencing, may be caused without foul play. A while playing fairly, hurts Z and as a result Z dies. A is liable:

# A instigates B to instigate C to murder Z. B accordingly instigates C to murder Z and C commits that offence in consequence of B’s instigation. A is liable:

# To constitute a criminal conspiracy, there must be an agreement between:

# Which of the following is not an offence against the State, under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

# For an assembly to be unlawful, must have a common object of the kind specified in:

# Rioting means use of force or violence by an assembly of five or more persons, or by a member thereof, in prosecution of the common object of such assembly, as per:

# ‘A’ being an officer directed by law to take property in execution, in order to satisfy a decree pronounced in Z’s favour by a Court of Justice, knowingly disobeys that direction of law, with the knowledge that he is likely thereby to cause injury to ‘Z’.

# ‘A’ refuse to answer a question which is relevant to the subject concerning which the public servant is authorized to inquire. ‘A’ is liable to be punished:

# ‘A’ puts jewels into a box belonging to ‘Z’, with the intention that they may be found in that box, and that this circumstance may cause ‘Z’ to be convicted of theft. A has committed the offence:

# Whoever imports into India, or exports therefrom, any counterfeit coin which he knows to be a counterfeit of Indian coin, is punishable with:

# Grave and sudden provocation in case of commission of offence of murder is a :

# Section 303 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in:

# ‘A’ with the intention of killing ‘B’, gave him poisoned halwa to eat. ‘A’ ate a little and threw away the rest, which a child picked up and ate it. The child died of poisoning. ‘A’ is:

# Section 304-B of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, describes the offence of:

# The offence of grievous hurt has been defined in:

# ‘A’ cause ‘Z’ to go within a walled space and locks ‘Z’ in. ‘Z’ is thus prevented from proceeding in any direction beyond the circumscribing line of wall. A has committed the offence described in:

# The act of use of force by one person to another, has been described in:

# Section 354 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 describes the offence of:

# ‘A’ obtains property from ‘Z’ by saying. ‘Your child is in the hands of my gang and will be put to death unless you send us ten lakhs rupees.’ A has committed the offence of:

# The offence of ‘criminal breach of trust’ is described in:

# The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 extends to:

# The classification of offence into bailable and non-bailable has been given in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, under:

# IN a non-cognizable case, the police has the authority:

# Offence other than those mentioned in Section 320 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, are:

# It is mandatory to produce the person arrested before the Magistrate, within 24 hours of the arrest, under:

# Who amongst the following is not competent under Section 92 of Cr.P.C. to order the postal or telegraph authorities to deliver the documents/thing?

# A declaration of forfeiture under Section 95 of Cr.P.C. can be set aside by:

# Under Section 125 of Cr.P.C., a Magistrate has:

# In case of merger of the complaint with the Police report, the procedure to be followed for the trial shall be:

# Jurisdiction to grant bail under Section 438 of the Cr.P.C. vests with:

# Under Section 468 of the Cr.P.C. the period of limitation for an offence punishable with a term not exceeding one year is:

# Under Section 308 of Cr.P.C. an accomplice, who does not comply with the conditions of pardon, may be prosecuted and tried separately for the offence of giving false evidence, but with the sanction of the :

# The term ‘vehicle’ for the purposes of the Indian Forest Act, 1927, does not include:

# Section 35 of the Indian Forest Act, 1927, does not empower the State Government, to regulate or prohibit, in any forest or wasteland:

# In Himachal Pradesh, the State Government may prescribe, as penalties, for the contravention of rules, regulating transit of forest produce: