Delhi Judicial Services Exam DJSE 2014

Note : This is not the complete question paper. This post contains only the question headers for reference. The complete papers, with the official answer keys are available for our registered users of LawMint.com online practice packs for the Judicial Services Exam preparation.

# SCULPTOR : CHISEL ::

# WRIST : WATCH ::

# CONSTELLATION : STAR ::

# Stand on ceremony

# Show a clean pair of heals

# The gift of the gab

# Give similar meaning of INUNDATE

# Give similar meaning of QUIBBLE

# Give similar meaning of ZANY

# Give opposite word to PROBITY

# Give opposite word to INTOLERABLE

# Give opposite word to LUSTROUS

# Ritu has eaten her lunch already, but I am saving ……….until later.

# We gave them……… telephone number, and they gave us .

# ……..pen is broken. Can I borrow…….

# Outgoing and ……… by nature, Kavita became even more gregarious at the school party.

# The Health Ministry rejected the drug because the tests conducted for toxicity showed … results on the patients.

# The District Collector …….. the Minister about the flood situation.

# Don’t loiter ……. the street.

# He rules ……. a vast empire.

# The noise comes from …… the river.

# I have not heard the ……news.

# He is …….. than I expected.

# The …….. chapters are lacking in interest.

# Ours is the …….. house in the street.

# 26. The first cellular phone service in India was introduced by

# Rapid Action Force, a Central Armed Force was raised on October 7, 1992 to

# The first indigenously built submarine to join the Indian Navy was

# The US whistle blower Edward Snowden has been granted asylum by

# Who is known as the Iron Lady of Manipur?

# The first Indian to receive the Grammy Life Time Achievement Award is

# Human hair is made of the same substance as

# The thyroid cartilage is commonly known as

# The smallest particle of an element which is capable of taking part in a chemical reaction is

# The year 2014 is observed by the United Nations as the International Year of

# India’s National Coral Reef Research Centre is located at

# Kaziranga National Park famous for one-horned rhinos is situated in

# The planet with the largest moon is

# Mariana Trench, the deepest pan of the ocean lies in the

# The imaginary lines drawn out on the global map, from poles to poles and perpendicular to the equator are called

# Which is the only country in the world that won its independence because of a slave revolt?

# Which is the first state to achieve 100% sanitation in rural and urban households?

# Which book was withdrawn by Penguin India from the Indian market following an out of court settlement?

# 2013 All India Football Federation (AIFF) Award for ‘The Player of the Year’ was given to

# Who is the Chairperson of the 20l Law Commission of India?

# The Supreme Court dismissed the petition filed by the Swiss Firm Novartis for protection of patent of

# Name the sport with which Calcutta Cup Trophy is associated.

# The fastest super computer of the world is

# Who was the first woman Chief Information Commissioner of India?

# The 61s’ National Film Award for the ‘Best Feature Film’ was given to

# The difference between Sec. 34 and Sec. 149 of the Indian Penal Code is that

# ‘A’ is carried off by a tiger. ‘Z’ fires at the tiger in good faith intending to rescue ‘A’, knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill ‘A’. The shot fired by ‘Z’ gives ‘A’ a mortal wound. ‘Z’ has committed

# Which is not the ‘stolen property’?

# In which of the following cases, the offence of ‘house-breaking’ is committed?

# P’ is found in possession of a document purporting to be a will of ‘Q’ in favour of ‘P’, bearing forged signatures of ‘Q’, intending that the will shall be fraudulently used as genuine after the death of ‘Q’, ‘P’ has committed

# ‘A’, finds a gold ring on the road, knowing it be the property of ‘Z’, he having unknowingly lost it there.‘A’ picks up the ring and pledges it with a money-lender to raise a loan. ‘A’ has committed

# Which one of the following statements is correct?

# If a person sitting across to a girl in public transport deliberately shows a pornographic picture to her, it amounts to the offence of

# ‘B’ and his girlfriend ‘G’, both adults, engage in consensual sexual intercourse in the privacy of the bedroom of the latter and ‘B’ with her consent prepares a video clip on his mobile camera and later shows it in total privacy to his friend ‘F’, it amount to-

# A woman approaches ‘X’, an officer in charge of a police station and alleges that her boyfriend tried to forcibly remove her shin in a dress shop, seeking legal action to be taken, but ‘X’ refuses to take note of the incident and asked her to file a criminal complaint before magistrate. Here ‘X’ committed a –

# ‘S’ is found in possession of property reasonably suspected to be stolen by him and is arrested by ‘P1, a police officer. ‘S’ is excited to sudden and violent passion by the arrest and fires at him but kills ‘D1 who was standing near’P1, neither intending nor knowing himself to be likely to kill ‘D’. This is –

# ‘A’ was sentenced to fine of rupees one thousand and in case of default to suffer simple imprisonment for six months. He did not pay the fine and was taken in custody. After six weeks, an amount of rupees one hundred was realised through warrant for recovery and he further deposited rupees four hundred the balance remaining unpaid. ‘A’ would be –

# The right of private defence of property extends to causing death of the wrongdoer under certain descriptions. Which one of the following descriptions is not included in those?

# Consider the following statements. To constitute abetment, it is
(a) necessary that the act abetted most be committed.
(b) not necessary that the act abetted must be committed.
(c) necessary that the person abetted must have the same intention or knowledg

# Consider the following statements.
(a) every murder is culpable homicide
(b) every culpable homicide is murder
(c) every robbery is either theft or extortion
(d) every extortion is robbery. Which of the statements given above are correct?

# With respect to the difference between kidnapping from lawful guardianship and abduction which of the following statements is correct?

# ‘X’ along with four other armed associates seizes the child of ‘Y’ and threatens to kill him unless ‘Y’ parts with his watch and diamond ring compelling him to do so. ‘X1 has committed the offence of

# For the offence of cheating

# ‘A’ and ‘Z’, both adults, agree to engage each other in fencing for amusement. In course of such fencing, without any foul play, ‘A’ causes a superficial hurt to ‘Z’. Here ‘X’

# In answer to the charge of defamation, which of the following is/are good defence(s)?

# Consider the following statement(s). A police officer has the power to arrest any person without an order from a magistrate or warrant of arrest, if he has reason to suspect his complicity in a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years, provided that  he is satisfied for reasons in writing such arrest is necessary-
(i) to prevent such person from committing any further offence.
(ii) for proper investigation of the offence.
(iii) to prevent such person from tempering with or causing the evidence of the offence to disappear.
(iv) to compel the absconding co-accused to surrender.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?

# What is the period of limitation prescribed for taking cognizance of an offence which is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding three years?

# Which of the following statements is /are true?

# Indicate the correct statement regarding the rights of an arrestee.
A person arrested without warrant has the right to-
(i) be informed of the particulars of the offence for which he is arrested.
(ii) have a relative or friend named by him to be informed about his arrest
(iii) have an advocate of his choice remain present throughout interrogation.
(iv) be medically examined by a medical officer. Which of the statements given above are correct?

# In order to compel appearance of a person who is absconding in spite of a warrant of ants being issue against him, his property may be ordered lo be attached simultaneously with issuance of a proclamation under section 82 of the Code of Criminal Procedur

# Which of the following is not an essential search-procedure under Sec. 100 of Code of Criminal Procedure?

# No wife shall be entitled to receive maintenance from her husband under Sec. 125 of Code of Criminal Procedure if she

# On the non-completion of investigation, i.e., failure of the prosecution to file charge sheet within the prescribed period of 90 or 60 days, as given in Section 167 of Code of Criminal Procedure, the

# G’, a 17 years old girl, was married to ‘H’. ‘H’ during the subsistence of the said marriage entered into another marriage with ‘P’. The court may take cognizance for the offence of bigamy, if the complaint is brought by

# ‘A’ is accused of an act which may amount to theft or receiving stolen property or criminal breach of trust or cheating. At trial, formal charge is framed only for the offence of theft. The evidence adduced at trial shows that he committed the offence of criminal breach of trust. He may be convicted –

# The categories of persons who may, without their consent, be charged and tried together include persons accused of

# F’, a French National on a tourist visa to India was raped by a group of four boys, two days prior to her scheduled departure from India. FIR was registered on her statement and the offenders were charge- sheeted. On being summoned by the Court to depose as a witness during trial, she refused to come to India on the ground of fear and inconvenience. Which of the following options is most appropriate for the trial court ?

# ‘A’ was acquitted of the charge for voluntarily causing grievous hurt by throwing acid on ‘X’, as the victim did not support the police version about invorvement of ‘A’ in the incident, though grievous hurt by acid was proved. ‘X’ seeks compensation from the trial court. The trial court may-

# ‘A’ faced trial for cheating ‘Z’ by dishonestly inducing him to lend money by knowingly pledging fake diamonds. ‘Z’ died during trial and was survived by a son ‘X’. ‘X’ moved an application in me Trial Court to compound the offence. Which of the following is the correct legal preposition ?

# Who can file an application for Plea-Bargaining in the com is which an offence is pending for trial?

# A criminal court, at conclusion of trial, may order

# A Metropolitan Magistrate may release an accused on bail in non-bailable offence except in following case(s) if –

# In computing the period of limitation, the period which may be included stated includes the

# The proceedings before a criminal court are vitiated if the presiding magistrate who is not empowered by law to do so

# Prosecution of a case involving misappropriation of property belonging to the Central Government can be withdrawn by

# Consider the following statement(s): A ‘decree’ means and includes

# Which is the correct essential conditions for applicability of the rule of sub judice?

# The expression ‘former suit’ in the context of rule of resjudicata means a suit which has been

# Which of the following statements is true?

# Consider the following statement(s)
i. A defendant may set up, by way of a counter-claim against the claim of the plaintiff any right or claim in respect of the cause of action accruing to him.
ii. The counter-claim may be submitted by the defendant even after he has delivered his defence.
iii. The Counter claim shall not exceed the pecuniary jurisdiction of the court.
which of the following statements given above are correct ?

# Which of the following statements is incorrect?

# Which of the following statements is correct?

# A money decree may be executed by

# Which of the following statements is correct?

# Which of the following statements is correct?

# In the context of withdrawal of suit, which is the correct statement?

# Which of the following is not an essential condition for an arbitration agreement as per Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act. 1996?

# Which of the following is not a ground for setting aside an arbitration award under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

# In which of the following cases it was held by the Supreme Court that Part I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 would have no application to International commercial arbitrations held outside India and therefore such awards would only be subject to the jurisdiction of Indian courts when the same are sought to be enforced in India in accordance with part II of the said Act ?

# The term consensus ad idem means

# In which case it was held that a contract through telephone is concluded at the place where acceptance is heard?

# ‘A’ saves ‘B’s property from fire, the circumstances indicated that he had done so gratuitously. Whether ‘A’ is entitled to

# The doctrine of privity of contract means that

# In India, the doctrine of impossibility of performance of a contract being void, is based on

# An agreement is void if its object or consideration is

# Which of the following is not a quasi-contract?

# ‘A’ applies to a banker for a loan at a time when there is stringency in the money market. The banker declines to make the loan except at an unusually high rate of interest. ‘A’ accepts the loan on these terms. In this case the contract is

# Inadequacy of consideration is relevant in determining the question of

# ‘P’ a wholesale dealer in sugar, sells sugar to ‘Q’ with a condition that ‘Q’ shall not sell the sugar beyond one kilometer of ‘P’s godown. The agreement is

# While determining damages for breach of contract, which of the following are taken into account?

# In case of acceptance by post, at what point the acceptance is complete as against the proposer?

# A person who finds goods belonging to another and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a/an

# ‘A’ contract to sing for ‘B’ at a concert for 750.000/-, which are paid in advance. ‘A’ is too ill to sing on the day of the concert. The consequence is ‘A’ had been able to sing.

# Where persons reciprocally promise, firstly to do certain things which are legal and secondly, under specified circumstances, to do certain other things which are illegal the.

# If the compensation to be paid on breach of contract is the genuine pre-estimate of the prospective damages, it is known as

# Mark the correct answer in respect of Contract of Guarantee.

# An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or note of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other or others, is a

# An agency can be terminated by

# If the time of performance of contract is the essence of contract and the promisor fails to perform the contract by the specified time, the contract is

# Which of the following is are correct statement (s)?

# Which of the following qualifies to be treated as “Fact” within the meaning assigned to it under the Evidence Act?

# According to the Evidence Act, a fact is said to be ‘not proved”, when the

# ‘A’ prosecutes ‘B’ for adultery with ‘C’, wife of ‘A’, “B’ contested by denying the allegation. ‘B’ was found guilty and convicted in said case. Subsequently, ‘C’ was prosecuted on charge of bigamy on allegations that she had married ‘B’ during subsistence

# Mark the incorrect statement. A court may take the assistance of expert for forming opinion on point of

# Which of the statements given below is are correct?

# ‘A’ is on trial for the murder of ‘C’. There is evidence to show that ‘C’ was murdered by ‘A’ and ‘B’, and that ‘B’ said – ‘A’ and I murdered ‘C’. As against ‘A’, this evidence is

# The essential conditions for the dying declaration to be relevant include the

(i) statement is made by a person as to the cause of his death.

(ii) statement is made by a person as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted i

# Which of the following statements is correct?

# ‘A’ is accused of receiving stolen goods knowing them to be stolen. He offers to prove that he refused to sell them below their value. Which of the following is correct?

# Which of the following is incorrect under the Evidence Act?

# C’ is employed as cashier by a firm to receive money at its sale counter. It is his duty to make entries in the ledger showing the amounts received by him. He is prosecuted on the charge of criminal breach of trust in respect of rupees ninety thousand on

# Mark what is not a ‘public document’ within the meaning of the expression used in the Evidence Act?

# Which of the following is correct?

# The evidence of contents of the information recorded or stored in a computer may be given through computer output, without production of the original, provided certain conditions are satisfied. The said conditions include that

# In which case oral evidence cannot be given? ‘A’ in a suit wants to prove verbal agreement that the terms included partial board.

# The burden of proving that the case of the accused comes within any of the General Exceptions in the Indian Penal Code is upon the

# The facts of which the court must take judicial notice include the

# Leading questions may be asked in examination-in-chief

# For deciding whether or not a witness shall be compelled to answer questions, the court shall have regard to considerations which include as to whether such questions are

# Which of me following is correct?

# The court may presume that

# ‘A’ intentionally and falsely led ‘B’ to believe that a plot of land belonged to him. On that basis, he induced ‘B1 to buy and pay for it. Afterwards the plot of land became the property of ‘A’. ‘A’ brought a suit to set aside the sale in favour of ‘B’ on

# All persons are competent to testify unless the court considers that they are prevented from understanding the questions put to them because of

# The Judge’s power to put questions or order production of documents does not include authorization to

# Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply as

# Which of the following is not a disability under Section 6 (legal disability) of the Limitation Act, 1963?

# In case of a suit for property which the plaintiff has conveyed while insane, the time from which the period of limitation (three years under Article 102 of the Schedule of the Limitation Act, 1963) begins to run is

# A suit to set aside a transfer of property made by the guardian of a ward, by the ward who has attained majority, can be filed within three years (Art. 60 of the Schedule of the Limitation Act, 1963) from when the

# In case of a suit by a person excluded from a joint family property to enforce a right to share therein, the time from which the period of limitation (12 years under Article 110 of the Schedule of the Limitation Act, 1963) begins to run is

# The Supreme Court in Collector Land Acquisition. Anantnag v. Katiji, AIR 1987 SC 1353 laid down the

# The period of limitation for preferring an appeal from a decree passed by a court subordinate to the High Court to a High Court from the date of the decree is

# Section 21 (Effect of substituting or adding new plaintiff or defendant) of the Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply in case of which of the following?

# Which of the following is correct with regard to acknowledge of liability under Sec. 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963?

# Under Sec. 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963 fresh period of limitation has to be computer from the date of

# The relation of partnership according to Section 5 of Indian Partnership Act, 1932 arises from

# The authority of a partner to bind the firm by his acts done in the usual course ob business is called his ‘implied authority’. Such authority does not include

# A partnership firm may be dissolved

# When a minor elects to become a partner he becomes personally liable to ‘third parties for all acts of the firm done since

# In which of the following cases, a partner may cease to be partner without the dissolution of the firm?

# A court may deny specific performance of an agreements to sell an immovable property if

# The relief of injunction cannot be granted

# S’ a shopkeeper has kept the goods for sale on the pavement outside the shop and constructed temporary overhead shed. Flying squad of NCT of Delhi demolished the temporary construction and seized the goods from the pavement, without giving him any notice.

# The engagement diamond ring of ‘N’ was stolen by T’, a thief who sold it to T a jeweller. ‘N’ filed a suit for recovery of ring against T. T contended that he is ready to pay the price of the ring. Whether the decree for recovery of diamond ring can be re

# It is the principle of law that a person who has been in long and continuous possession can protect the same by seeking injunction against any person in the whole world other than the true owner. The above statement is

# Which of the following statements is/are correct in the light of provisions of Article 356?

# In which case it was held by the Supreme Court that – ‘Delay in deciding mercy petition is a sufficient ground for commuting the death sentence to life imprisonment’?

# Which of the following is correct about the preamble to the Constitution of India?

# Which of the following is true about Supreme Court of India?

# Which of the following writ is not amenable to the principle of ‘res judicata’?

# Curative Petition’ may be entertained by the Supreme Cant in the following situation/situations

# The President shall have the power under Article 72 of the Constitution of India where

# Which of the following is not a requirement under Article 311 of the Constitution while dealing with disciplinary proceedings for dismissal, removal or redaction in rank of a civil servant?

# Amendment to which of the following provisions of Constitution require ratification by the state?

# Which of the following is not a Fundamental duty under Article 51-A?

# 192. Which of the following is a Directive Principles of State Policy?

# Which of the following is a Fundamental Right?

# Which of the following is a State for the purposes of Article 12?

# Which of the following Articles was amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?

# Which of the following writs can be sought to be issued to quash unconstitutional appointment to ; public office:

# Parliament of India shall consist of

# Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?

# Which of the following is not a requirement to be satisfied by roe State to exercise their discretion while providing for reservations in promotions in favour of SCs & STs?

# Which of the following Articles was inserted by the Constitution (Ninety-Eighth Amendment) Act, 2012?