Delhi Assistant Public Prosecutor Exam DAPP 2010

Delhi Assistant Public Prosecutor Exam DAPP 2010 LawMint.com Judiciary Exam Mock Tests Civil Judge Previous Papers Legal Test Series MCQs Study Material Model Papers
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# To review the financial posilion of which one among the following, the Governor of a State has power to constitute a Finance Commission?

# Consider the following statements and identify the answer using the code given below: Statement I: X in the house with a child which is on fire. Knowing that the fall may kill the child, but not intending to kill him and in good faith in the child’s benefit, X drops the cluid from the house-top to a blanket which was held out by some people below. Unfortunately the child died as a result of the fall. X has committed no offence. Statement 11: Nothing is an offence which is done in good faith for the benefit of a person without his consent or consent of lawful guardian, if minor or person of unsound mind. Code:

# According to the Indian Evidence Act, a fact is said to be ‘not proved’, when the:

# What is the maximum number of members of the House of the People representing the Union Territories?

# Section 315 of the Code of Criminal Procedure relate to the accused person as competent witness. With regard to this, which one among the following statements is nor correct?

# Which one among the following is not a duty of the Prime Minister of India?

# In which one among the following cases, the right of private defence to the extent of causing death is available?

# The question of disqualification of Speaker of the House of the People on the ground of defection is decided by:

# The Supreme Court of India in the case of State of Haryana v. Danesh Kumar (2008) held that ‘arrest’ implies:

# Cross examination of one’s own witness is:

# Which one among the following is not a relevant factor to decide whether an agency or instrumentality should be treated as ‘Stale’ under Article 12 of the Constitution of India?

# X was ill-treated by her in-laws including her husband H. After some time, she decided to leave her in-laws’ house and jumps into a well along with her only child C, who she thought will not be taken care of by his uncaring father after her death. X jumped into the well along with C. C died but X was saved. X is liable for:

# Which one among the following is nof relevant under the Indian Evidence Act?

# Which one among the following statements is correct?

# Which one among the following is the role of the trial judge under the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure?

# The Indian Evidence Act declares that anything said, done or written by any one of the conspirators is relevant to prove conspiracy, if it was in:

# The function of the Inter-State Council does nor include:

# D, a bus driver, was driving a bus carrying passengers on a kuchha road. A speeding truck carrying goods came from opposite side raising lot of dust resulting in poor visibility. D did not stop but continued to drive. B, a boy, who was trying to cross the road was hit by the bus driven by D and died soon thereafter. Which one among the following statements brings out the correct legal position?

# Photofit, i.e. superimposed photograph of the deceased over the skeleton of a human body (skull) recover from a tank to prove the fact that the skeleton was that of the deceased was held to be admissible by the Supreme Court of India in the case of:

# A writ of mandamus can be issued:

# The Supreme Court of India has recognized the presumption of innocence as a:

# The plea can succeed only if it is shown that the accused was so far away at the relevant time that he could not be present at the place where the crime was committed’. The Supreme Court of India, in this observation, was referring to the plea of:

# No person has fundamental right to:

# X, aged 16 years, developed liking for his neighbour, Y, aged 18 years and was keen to marry him. When her parents came to know about it, they took her to a releative’s place away from her home and decided to give her education there. After some days, X telephoned Y and asked him to come to a particular place. Y reached the place, where X asked him to take her to a hill station on his scooter where she proposed marriage and Y responded. Before they could get married, the father of X filed complaint against Y under Section 363 of IPC and Y was arrested. Which one among the following statements gives the correct legal position in the matter?

# Which one among the following statements is not correct according to the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act?

# An ordinance promulgated by the Governor of a State lapses:

# Plea bargaining under Indian law implies:

# Which one among the following statements according to the Indian Evidence Act is correct?

# Which one among the following statements is correct?

# Consider the following statement and identify the correct answer using the code given below: Statement I: A, tine owner of a watch, gives his watch for repair against a charge to B. A however, took away the watch after repai ring without paying any charge and without the consent of B. A hah made himself liable for the offence of theft as he has acted with dishonest intention at the time of taking his watch back. Statement II: The offence of.theft is an offence against possession. Code:

# According to the Indian Evidence Act, the burden of proof in a suit or proceeding lies on the person:

# Consider the following statements and identify the answer using the code given below: Statement I: The principle of equality before law and equal protection of laws means that equals must be treated equally . Statement II: All persons are not equal by nature, attainment or circumstances Code:

# Anticipatory bail’implies:

# By a parliamentary legislation, the district courts were empowered to enforce the fundamental rights of citizens in service matters. The legislation is:

# Non-bailable offence’ implies an offence win ere:

# H and W were married recently but W preferred to stay mostly at her parental place. This conduct of W made H angry. He came to take W back from her parental place. When W refused to go he tried to take her forcibly. At this F, the father of W, became angry and gave H two blows with a lathi which landed on the head of H who died soon thereafter. F is being tried for murder. He pleads rights of private defence against Ihe act of H which he says amounts to ‘aduction’. Prosecution pleads ‘abduction’ is not an offence and therefore there can be no exercise of right of private defence. Which one among the following statements gives the correct legal position in the matter? ‘abduction’ per se is not an offence 100 of the Code of Criminal Procedure in which case right of private defence can extend to causing of d

# The questions in cross-examination:

# The objective of the Article 13 of the Constitution of India is to:

# Investigation, under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is conducted by:

# Oral account of the contents of a document by a person who has seen it is:

# The confirmation of an additional judge of a High Court as a permanent judge of that court without consultation with the ‘collegium’ of judges is: 1 of 1998

# Strict liability in criminal law arises where:

# Which one of the following statements is not correct?

# A declaration of forfeiture under Section 95 of the Code of Criminal Procedure can be set aside by:

# B with the intent of temporarily use W’s money and later on return it, instructs C, his six years old son, to take away W’s purse containing Rs. 20,000 without W’s consent. C carried out the instructions. The criminal liability in this case is:

# Which one of he following correctly describes the provision of Article 32 of the Constitution of Article 32 of the Constitution of India?

# Section 53 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment Act 25 of 2005) provides for examination of the:

# The question is whether the murder of X was committed by Y. The fact that Y produces an admission slip of hospital indicating dislocation of his hip bone during the period of alleged murder. Which one among the following is the correct provision of The Indian Evidence Act under which it is relevant?

# The Parliament enacts a legislation conferring power on the Central Government power on the Central Government to adopt an existing legislation from any State and apply the same to a Union Territory with such modifications and restrictions as it deems fit and while doing so, it may repeal any existing law on the subject. The Central Government exercised that power repeatedly for one Union Territory by amending some of the provisions of the State legislation. With respect to the above, which one of the following is correct?

# Which one of the following statements is correct? The principle of judicial review is part of the basic feature of the Constitution of India, but it has been held by the Supreme Court that:

# Whether the provocation was grave and sudden enough to reduce criminal liability from murder to culpable homicide not amounting to murder is a:

# In the case of conspiracy among X, Y and Z, prosecution produces a letter written by X to Z, after X and Y were arrested, directing him to conceal all relevant material lying with him. Is the letter relevant?

# Which one of the following statements is correct? The ‘lion obstante clause’ under Article 246(1) is invoked to judge the validity of a State- legislation when the:

# Any person aggrieved by refusal, on the part of an officer in charge of police station io record the information in cognizable offence may, under Section 154(3) of the Code of Criminal Procedure send the information in writing and by post to:

# The Parliament passes a legislation with respect to a subject in the State list in the national interest. The legislation contains certain provisions which are inconsistent with the provisions of a State legislation enacted on the same subject. With regard to the above which one of the following is correct?

# According to Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, a magistrate of the first class can order a monthly allowance for maintenance of persons mentioned therein for:

# A and B were married. During marriage A committed forgery and communicated it to B, his wife. After some time divorce took place between A and B, and B married C. In a charge against this forgery prosecution wants to produce B as a witness against A. Can they do so?

# The properties of a State Government are acquired by the Central Government in accordance with the provisions of an Act passed by Parliament. The State challenges the Central Government’s action. Which one of the following is the best legal position? 32 of the Constitution of India

# A makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box and finds no jewels in the box. Which one among the following with regard to this is not correct?

# A wrote a letter to his lawyer X that he is going to commit theft and in case he is apprehended, he should be protected. Can X be witness against A in case of charge of theft?

# In the case of Madhu Bala v. Suresh Kumar (1997), the Supreme Court of India held that:

# Which one among the following statements is not correct?

# Which one among the following is common in the provisions of Section 123, Section 126 and Section 127 of the Indian Evidence Act?

# The President of India has no power to call for a joint session of Parliament:

# A, an officer of a court of justice, being ordered by that court to arrest Y, and after due enquiry, believing Z to be Y arrests Z. A is guilty of:

# A news item in the newspaper stated that those who will open industrial units in North-east India will be exempted from Corporate Tax for 5 years. X who wanted to set up an industry, applied to Director of Industries as well as to the Chief Secretary of one of the States and both confirmed the availability of Exemption. X proceeded with his plans. However, the State Government withdrew its policy after one year. Can X bring estoppel against the State?

# An order or decision which suffers from an error of law apparent on the lace of record can be quashed by a writ of:

# A group of militants of certain communal organization conducts training of members with arms in public place threatening public peace and safety. With regard to this, which one among the following statements is correct?

# Which one among the following is not a primary Evidence?

# According to the Indian Evidence Act, which one among the following statements is not correct?

# In which one among the following cases, the President of India is not bound by the advice of the Union Council of Ministers?

# In a case the State wants to apply for cancellation of bail on an accused. As per the decision of the Supreme Court of India in the case of State (Delhi Administration) v. Sanjay Gandhi, which one of the following may be the appropriate ground for seeking cancellation of bail of the accused?

# A and B make a contract in writing that B shall sell A a house, to be paid for on delivery. At the same time they make an oral agreement that three months’ credit shall be given to A. Can evidence of this oral agreement be given in a court?

# Which among the following is not a fact admitted?

# Which one among the following statements is not correct?

# Application for withdrawal from prosecution by the prosecutor under Section 321 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, can be made only alter a:

# According to the Indian Evidence Act, which one among the following is irrelevant?

# Which one of the following is irrelevant?

# Which one of the following is correct? The result of obtaining the assent of the President to a State law which is inconsislent with a Union law relating to a subject in the concurrent list would be that:

# According to the IPC 1860, which one among the following is not an offence?

# In which one among the following cases the Supreme Court of India said that ‘it is not an absolute rule of law that dying declaration must be corroborated by other evidence before it can be acted upon’?

# An action taken by the Central Government without consulting the Union Public Service Commission as required by law:

# Under Section 83(1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, the court may order:

# Which one among the following does nof fall into the category of expert evidence?

# Z, a person of unsound mind, attempts to kill A. Which one among the following statements, as per the provisions of IPC 1860, is correct?

# The President has no power to grant pardon under Article 72 of the Constitution of India where the sentence:

# A is tried for voluntarily causing grievous hurt and convicted. The victim subsequently dies. The State wants to try A for the offence of culpable homicide amounting to murder under IPC. Which one among the following is the correct legal position?

# The rigor of conclusive presumption of legitimacy under Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act can only be rebutted by:

# A State bans for two months the holding of any religious congregation in public places on the ground that there is high risk of spread of infectious disease swine flu. Is the ban valid? 25(1) of the Constitution of India 25(2) of the Constitution of India

# X inflicts one spear thrust in the abdominal region of Y which penetrates deep with the result that three coils of intestines come out when he takes out the spear. Y dies next day. It is proved in evidence that X did not want to kill Y outright but only intended to cause bodily injury. The criminal liability of X under IPC is:

# Mr. X managed to get admission in MBBS course under a false caste certificate. University took three long years in verifying it and ultimately cancelled admission of Mr. X. Can estoppel work against the university?

Judicial Service (Judge) Exam - Online Practice Pack - Mock Tests & Previous Papers

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