DU LLM 2020 Previous Question Paper & Mock Test Series

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1) Match List I with List II

List I
A. N. G. Dastane v S. Dastane, (1975)2 SCC 326
B. Court on its Own Motion (Lajja Devi) v. State, 2012 (193) DLT 61
C. Saroj Rani v. Sudharshan Kumar, AIR 1984 SC 1562
D. Bipin Chandra v. Prabhavati, AIR 1957SC 176

List II
I. Desertion as a ground for divorce
II. Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006 will prevail over personal law
III. S.23(1)(a) is not a bar to file a petition under S.13 (1-A)
IV. Cruelty as a ground for divorce
1. A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
2. A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
3. A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
4. A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II

2) Which of the following statements are correct?
The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
A. Does not permit polygamy
B. Permits conversion to Islam and to take a second wife
C. Does not permit Sagotra marriage
D. Does not permit marriage within prohibited relationship Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C and D
2. A, C and D only
3. A and C only
4. A and D only

3) Given below are two statements
Statement I: Two Hindus married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 are governed by the Indian Succession Act, 1925 in matters of inheritance.
Statement II: Two Muslims married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 are governed by the Indian Succession Act, 1925 in matters of inheritance.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

4) Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding the Special Marriage Act, 1954 A.
A. A marriage shall be null and void if one of the parties to the marriage is impotent at the time of marriage and at the time of institution of suit
B. One of the conditions for marrying under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 is that the male must have completed the age of 21 years and the female the age of 18 years
C. Any marriage celebrated in other forms may be registered under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 and both the parties must have completed 21 years of age at the time of registration
D. A divorce petition may be filed if the respondent is undergoing a sentence of imprisonment for seven years or more for an offence under IPC
1. All the above are incorrect
2. All the above are correct
3. B and D are incorrect
4. C and D are incorrect

5) In case of judicial separation
A. The marital tie is severed by a judicial order
B. The marital obligations and rights are suspended
C. The husband has to pay maintenance to the wife
D. They can re-unite after getting the order rescinded
1. A, B, C and D only
2. None of these
3. B, C and D only
4. A, B and C only

6) Which among the following may be an absolute property of a female Hindu under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
1. Property acquired by a female Hindu in lieu of partition
2. Property acquired by a female Hindu in lieu of maintenance
3. Property acquired by a female Hindu for arrears of maintenance
4. All of these

7) Match List I with List II
List I – features
A. Children of the same father, but by different mothers
B. Children of the same mother, but by different fathers
C. A person related to the propositus through one or more female links
D. A person related to the propositus through male links

List II – legal terms
I. Uterine
II. Agnate
III. Consanguine
IV. Cognate
1. A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
2. A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
3. A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
4. A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III

8) Match List I with List II

List I – decisions
A. Right to adopt a child is inherent in the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution
B. Right to adopt a child under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 would prevail over all other personal laws. However, the present is not an appropriate time where the right ‘to adopt’ and ‘to be adopted’ can be raised to the status of a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution of India
C. Innocent second wife, who is unaware of the first marriage of the husband, is entitled to maintenance under section 125 CrPC
D. Wife, for the purpose of section 125 CrPC, means only a legally wedded wife

List II – cases
I. Badshah v. Urmila Badshah
II. Savitaben Somabhai Bhatiya v. State of Gujarat
III. Philips Alfred Malvin v. Y.J. Gonsalvis
IV. Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India
1. A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
2. A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II
3. A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
4. A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II

9) Bigamy under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 includes…
1. 1) Polygamy i.e. having more than one wife
2. 2) Polyandry i.e. having more than one husband
3. 3) Both option 1 and 2
4. 4) None of the above

10) Which of the following statements hold true regarding the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005?
1. 1) Daughters can now act as the Karta of a joint Hindu family
2. 2) Daughters can now become a coparcener in a Joint Hindu Family
3. 3) 1 only
4. 4) 1 and 2

11) Islamic law provides for
1. monogamy
2. unlimited polygamy
3. bigamy
4. controlled polygamy

12) The rule of Nemo dat quod non-habet is related to Section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
1. 28
2. 23
3. 6
4. 20

13) The intention of a mortgagee to deposit title deeds in equitable mortgage is to,
1. take an interest
2. take possession
3. create security
4. take consideration

14) A transfer of property occurring due to insolvency, forfeiture or sale in execution of a decree is called a
1. transfer by will
2. transfer by operation of law
3. transfer by act of parties
4. None of these

15) “A direct transfer of property in favour of an unborn person cannot be done”. This sentence is
1. partly false
2. absolutely true
3. absolutely false
4. partly true

16) Which among the following cannot be transferred as per section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
1. All interest in property restricted in its enjoyment to the owner personally
2. A right to future maintenance
3. A public office
4. All of these

17) A gift comprising of both existing and future property is
1. void
2. valid
3. void only in respect of future property
4. void only in respect of existing property

18) Which among the following cases is related to “curative petition”?
1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
2. Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra & Another
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
4. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India

19) Which among the following provisions of the Constitution of India maintains that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India ‘to safeguard public property and to abjure violence’?
1. 51 A (a)
2. 51 A (e)
3. 51 A (i)
4. 51 A (g)

20) Which of the following is called a revising chamber?
1. 1) Lok Sabha
2. 2) Rajya Sabha
3. 3) President Office
4. 4) Option 1 and 3

21) Originally the Constitution of India had
1. 395 Articles 22 Parts 8 Schedules
2. 359 Articles 20 Parts 8 Schedules
3. 414 Articles 24 Parts 12 Schedules
4. 141 Articles 22 Parts 12 Schedules

22) In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India said that “establishment of the egalitarian social order through rule of law is the basic structure of the Constitution”?
1. D.S. Nakara v. Union of India
2. State of Bihar v. Subhash Singh
3. Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh
4. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

23) Which of the following is not true about the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
1. Contains the enacting clause
2. Declares the basic types of the Government
3. Provides the source of the Constitution
4. Provides powers to Courts

24) “The test of ‘pith and substance of the subject matter’ and of ‘the object of the legislation’ were irrelevant, to the question of infringement of fundamental rights and the true test was the ‘direct effect’ of the impugned action on a particular fundamental right”. It was observed in the case of
1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
2. R C Cooper v. Union of India
3. Bennett Coleman & Co. v. Union of India
4. Sankari Prasad v. Union of India

25) Party system is not prescribed in the Constitution of India, but has become an established system to run the parliamentary democratic system. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India pointed out that for a strong vibrant democratic government, parliamentary system is necessary which can be best achieved by party system?
A. Rama Kant Pandey v. Union of India
B. Rai Ramkrishna v. State of Bihar
C. S. Kodar v. State of Kerala
D. Kanhiyalal Omar v. R.K. Trivedi
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. A and D only
4. B, C and D only

26) ‘Supreme Court is not only a court of law but also a court of equity’. This was said in
1. Engineering Mazdoor Sabha v. Hind Cycles Ltd.
2. Kihoto Hollahan v. Zachillhu
3. Chandra Bansi Singh v. State of Bihar
4. Arunachalam v. Sadhanantham

27) The doctrine of basic structure, till now, has not been used by a constitutional court to strike down
1. enactments by legislator
2. constitutional amendments
3. executive actions
4. None of these

28) Who among the following does not hold an office of profit during the pleasure of the President?
1. Judge of the Supreme Court of India
2. Election Commissioner of India
3. Member of the Union Public Service Commission
4. None of these

29) Which of the following Fundamental Rights is not enforceable against a non-state entity?
1. Article 15(2)
2. Article 16(2)
3. Article 17
4. Article 23

30) The Supreme Court of India held that Article 14 of the Constitution of India embodies the principle of non-arbitrariness for the first time in
1. Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi
2. AK Roy v. Union of India
3. EP Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
4. AK Kraipak v. Union of India

31) The Supreme Court of India in National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014) held that transgender persons have the right to identify their gender as
1. Female only
2. Either male or female
3. Third gender only
4. Either male or female or third gender

32) How many freedoms have been enumerated in the ‘liberty’ clause of the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. Six

33) No person can hold the office of the director in more than
1. 10 Public companies at a time
2. 15 Public companies at a time
3. 20 Public companies at a time
4. 50 Public companies at a time

34) Which two types of business structures are created via a process of incorporation?
1. Companies and sole proprietorships
2. Partnerships and limited liability partnerships
3. Companies and limited liability partnerships
4. Companies and partnerships

35) On incorporation of a company, the Registrar of Companies, in addition to the Certificate of Incorporation, issues a unique identification number, namely….
1. Unique corporate number
2. Corporate identification number
3. Company identification number
4. Unique identification number

36) Starax Ltd. has the paid-up equity capital structure in the following proportion – Central Government: 38%; State Government: 10%; Subsidiary of a Government Company: 17.50%; and remaining shares by retail shareholders. Which of the following classes of companies would it belong to?
1. government company
2. non-government company
3. deemed public company
4. deemed private company

37) Contracts made after incorporation of a public company, but before issuing the certificate of commencement of business are..
1. provisional contracts
2. post-incorporation contracts
3. preliminary contracts
4. contracts in the normal course of business

38) Producer company is based on the principles of.
1. Patronage
2. Mutual Assistance
3. Limited Return
4. All of these

39) Which among the following remedies is available for a person who acted upon a false prospectus?
1. Damages for fraudulent misrepresentation
2. Compensation for untrue statement
3. Damages for non-compliance with the requirements of section 26 of the Companies Act, 2013
4. All of these

40) Which among the following is regarded as the most important document of a company?
1. Annual Report
2. Prospectus
3. Articles of Association
4. Memorandum of Association

41) The responsibility of a finder of goods is the,
1. same responsibility as a trustee
2. same responsibility as a bailee
3. same responsibility as the owner
4. same responsibility as a pledgee

42) An agreement made without consideration is void, unless it is a promise to compensate, wholly or in part, a person who has done something for the promisor, or something which the promisor was legally compellable to do
1. lawfully and willingly
2. under a mistake of fact
3. under a mistake of law
4. already voluntarily

43) Which of the following act does not constitute fraud under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
1. the suggestion, as a fact, of that which is not true, by one who does not believe it to be true
2. the active concealment of a fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact
3. where a person stands in a fiduciary relation with the other and induces the other person to act on his directions
4. a promise made without any intention of performing it

44) Which of the following agreement is void?
1. A owes B Rs 1000, but the debt is barred by the Limitation Act. A signs a written promise to pay B Rs. 500 on account of the debt
2. A supports B’s infant son. B promises in writing to pay A’s expenses in so doing
3. A finds B’s purse and gives it to him. B orally promises to give A Rs. 500
4. A, for love and affection, promises to give his neighbour’s son, B, Rs. 9,000. A puts his promise to B into writing

45) A owes money to B under a contract. It is agreed between A, B and C, that B shall thenceforth accept C as his debtor, instead of A. This agreement is called as
1. Alteration
2. Rescission
3. Novation
4. Extinction

46) Which of the following is/are exceptions to the doctrine of privity of contract?
1. Beneficiaries
2. Marriage settlement, partition or other family arrangements
3. Covenants running with land
4. All of these

47) A sells, by auction to B, a horse which A knows to be unsound and A says nothing to B about the horse’s unsoundness. Choose the correct option from the following
1. This amounts to fraud
2. This does not amount to fraud
3. This amounts to undue influence
4. This amounts to misrepresentation

48) Where the proposal and acceptance are through letters, the contract is made at
1. the place where the letter of acceptance is posted
2. the place where the letter of acceptance is received
3. the place where the letter of acceptance is addressed
4. All of these

49) Agreement restraining legal proceeding is void only if restraint is
1. partial
2. absolute
3. written
4. None of these

50) Section 72 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with unjust enrichment on account of.
1. mistake
2. coercion
3. non-gratuitous act
4. Both option 1 and 2

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Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

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