CLAT PG LLM 2017 – Previous Question Paper

The pattern of Question Paper and syllabus CLAT PG LLM 2017

(a) Maximum Marks : 150
(b) Duration of CLAT PG LLM 2017 Exam 02:00 Hours
(c) Question Type : Multiple-Choice Questions 150 questions of one mark each
(d) Negative Marking : 0.25 Mark will be deducted for each wrong answer

The official answer key for this question paper, along with other previous questions papers and 100 mock test series is included in LawMint CLAT PG LLM online practice pack.

CLAT PG LLM 2017 Syllabus:
As per the official announcement, questions will be asked from the following areas of Law:
1. Constitutional Law : 50 Marks
2. Jurisprudence : 50 Marks
3. Other Law Subjects such as Contract, Torts, Criminal Law, International Law, IPR etc. : 50 Marks

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SECTION: CONSTITUTIONAL LAW

1. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision given by the_____ shall be final:
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Vice-President
(d) Prime Minister.

2. Part IX-B of the Constitution of India dealing with the ‘Co-operative Societies’ was inserted by:
(a) The Constitution (Ninety Fifth Amendment) Act, 2009
(b) The Constitution (Ninety Eighth Amendment) Act, 2012
(c) The Constitution (Ninety Third Amendment) Act, 2005
(d) The Constitution (Ninety Seventh Amendment) Act, 2011.

3. Article 280 of the Constitution of India deals with:
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Election Commission of India
(c) Union Public Service Commission
(d) Comptroller and Auditor-General.

4. Which provision of the Constitution of India deals with the representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the House of the People?
(a) Article 331
(b) Article 332
(c) Article 333
(d) Article 330.

5. In State of Maharashtra v. Dr. Praful B. Desai, 2003 SC the Supreme Court of India held:
(a) Right to speedy trial is part and parcel of Right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution
(b) It is obligatory on the employer to compute the family pension and offer the same to the widow even without making a claim on her part
(c) Where lawyers boycott or are on strike it is the duty of the court to carry on with court proceedings
(d) Recording of evidence through Vedio- conferencing so long the accused and/or his pleader are present while recording is as per “procedure established by law” and hence valid.

6. In which of the following judgment, the scope of writ of Habeas Corpus was widened?
(a) D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, (1998 SC)
(b) Sheela Barse v. Union of India, (1983 SC)
(c) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration, (1978 SC)
(d) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, (1987 SC).

7. Which provision of the Constitution of India provides for joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament in certain cases?
(a) Article 107
(b) Article 110
(c) Article 109
(d) Article 108.

8. How many maximum members can represent the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha?
(a) 1.35
(b) 2.30
(c) 3.25
(d) 4.20.

9. Supreme Court of India issued directions to the Central Government to conclude the national survey on drug abuse within a period of six months and a national plan for curbing increase of use and abuse of substance in children within four months in:
(a) Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India, (1984 SC)
(b) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, (2017 SC)
(c) Bachpan Bachao Andolan v. Union of India, (2017 SC)
(d) Sheela Barse v. Union of India, (1987 SC).

10. How many judges constituted the Bench in the case of Supreme Court Advocates on Record Assn. v. Union of India, (2016) 5 SCC 1 in which the Constitution (Ninety Ninth Amendment) Act, 2014, was declared unconstitutional?
(a) Seven
(b) Five
(c) Nine
(d) Three.

11. The case of Markandey Katju v. Lok Sabha, (2017) 2 SCC 384 is related to:
(a) Freedom of Speech and Parliamentary privileges
(b) Functioning of Lok Sabha
(c) Power of the Parliament to make law
(d) Election of Speaker of Lok Sabha.

12. Which of the following writ means ‘what is your authority’?
(a) Prohibition
(b) Mandamus
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Habeas Corpus.

13. Which article of the Constitution of India provides that ‘the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India’?
(a) Article 43
(b) Article 44
(c) Article 42
(d) Article 41.

14. What is the outer limit of representatives of the States and of the UTs in the Council of States?
(a) Not more than 228
(b) Not more than 250
(c) Not more than 245
(d) Not more than 238.

15. According to the existing provision, the reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People and in the Legislative Assemblies of the States shall cease after_____ years from the Commencement of the Constitution of India.
(a) Ninety
(b) Seventy
(c) Hundred
(d) Eighty.

16. Protection from double jeopardy means:
(a) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
(b) No person shall be prosecuted or punished for different offence again
(c) No person shall be prosecuted for the same offence more than once
(d) No person shall be punished for the same offence more than once.

17. In which case ‘Secularism’ was recognized as basic feature of the Constitution of India?
(a) Selvi v. State of Karnataka, (2010 SC)
(b) M. Nagraj v. Union of India, (2006 SC)
(c) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, (1994 SC)
(d) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India, (1997 SC).

18. Which provision of the Constitution of India provides freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion?
(a) Article 26
(b) Article 27
(c) Article 28
(d) Article 29.

19. In which of the following decision the Supreme Court of India heard the matter at midnight?
(a) Ramprakash v. State of U.P.
(b) Jagdish Bhullar v. State of Punjab
(c) State of Maharashtra v. Anwar Ali
(d) Yaqub Abdul Razak Memon v. State of Maharashtra.

20. The judges of the Supreme Court of India can be removed from office in accordance with:
(a) Article 217
(b) Article 125
(c) Article 124
(d) Article 123.

21. While imposing compulsory service for public purposes, the State shall not make any discrimination on grounds only of:
(a) religion, race, caste, sex
(b) religion, race, caste place of birth or any of them
(c) religion, race, caste or class or any of them
(d) religion, race, caste or any of them.

22. Article 19(l)(c) of the Constitution of India guarantees freedom:
(a) to form trade unions
(b) to form associations or unions
(c) to form associations
(d) to form associations or unions, cooperative societies.

23. Under which article the President can promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament?
(a) Article 121
(b) Article 122
(c) Article 124
(d) Article 123.

24. Under which article of the Constitution of India Citizenship by Domicile can be determined?
(a) Article 11
(b) Article 10
(c) Article 9
(d) Article 5.

25. For a person to be eligible for election as President of India, one of the qualifications required is that he is qualified for election as a member of:
(a) the Legislature of the State
(b) the Parliament
(c) the House of People
(d) the Council of State.

26. Which article of the Constitution of India gives power to the President to consult the Supreme Court?
(a) Article 141
(b) Article 145
(c) Article 143
(d) Article 147.

27. Who has the power to prorogue the either House of the State Legislature?
(a) Governor
(b) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
(c) Chief Minister
(d) President.

28. The Vice-President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the:
(a) both the Houses of Parliament and agreed to by the majority of State Legislatures
(b) Council of States
(c) Council of States and agreed to by the House of People
(d) House of People.

29. Part XIII of the Indian Constitution dealing with trade commerce and intercourse appears to drive inspiration from:
(a) Australian Constitution
(b) Constitution of Ireland
(c) UK Constitution
(d) US Constitution.

30. Under which provision of the Constitution of India, it is the fundamental duty of every citizen of India to ‘strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement’
(a) Article 51A(c)
(b) Article 51A(f)
(c) Article 51A(j)
(d) Article 51A(d).

31. Which provisions were struck down in the case of Supreme Court Advocates-on- Record Association v. Union of India, (2016) 5 SCC 1?
(a) Articles 124, 124A to C, 217, 213 (as amended/inserted)
(b) Articles 124,124A to C (as amended / inserted)
(c) Articles 124, 124A to C, 127, 128, 217, 222, 224, 224A, 231 (as amended/ inserted)
(d) Articles 124, 124A to C, 217, 222, 224, 224A, 231 (as amended/inserted).

32. The House of Parliament may declare the seat of a member of either House of Parliament as vacant if he/she remains absent without permission of the House from all meetings for a period of:
(a) 80 days
(b) 50 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 100 days.

33. In which case, directions for improvement of conditions of inmates of Homes for mentally ill persons under the Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995, as well as psychiatric hospitals and nursing homes under Mental Health Act, 1987, were issued by the Supreme Court of India?
(a) Sheela Barse v. Union of India, 1987 SC
(b) Reena Banerjee v. Govt. (NCT of Delhi, 2017 SC
(c) Neeraja Chaudhari v. State, 2017 SC
(d) PUDR v. Union of India, 1982 SC.

34. In which part of the Constitution of India, the provision for Public Service Commissions is contained?
(a) Part XII
(b) Part XIII
(c) Part XI
(d) Part XIV.

35. Article 22(4) to (7) of the Constitution of India were amended by:
(a) The Constitution (Forty Fourth Amendment) Act, 1978
(b) The Constitution (Fifty Second Amendment) Act, 1985
(c) The Constitution (Forty Second Amendment) Act, 1976
(d) The Constitution (Fiftieth Amendment) Act, 1984.

36. The appointment of Comptroller and Auditor-General of India under Article 148 is made by the:
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) President of India
(d) Finance Minister of India.

37. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes can be created under which provision of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 338
(b) Article 338B
(c) Article 338A
(d) Article 337.

38. What is the effect of prorogation of the Houses on the Bill pending in Parliament?
(a) It does not lapse
(b) Prime Minister to decide whether the Bill lapses or not
(c) The Bill lapses
(d) Speaker to decide whether the Bill lapses or not.

39. Under which provision of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may by law empower any other Court to exercise within the local limits of its jurisdiction all or any of the powers exercisable by the Supreme Court under Article 32(2) of the Constitution?
(a) Article 32(4)
(b) Article 226
(c) Article 32(2)
(d) Article 32(3).

40. By which amendment, the word ‘oriya’ was replaced by ‘odia’ in the Eighth Schedule?
(a) The Constitution (Ninety Third Amendment) Act, 2005
(b) The Constitution (Ninety Eighth Amendment) Act, 2012
(c) The Constitution (Ninety Sixth Amendment) Act, 2011
(d) The Constitution (Ninety Seventh Amendment) Act, 2011.

41. The official language used in the Supreme Court of India shall be:
(a) Both English and Hindi
(b) Hindi
(c) Any local language
(d) English.

42. Under which article of the Constitution of India, there is a duty of the Chief Minister to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation as the Governor may call for?
(a) 168
(b) 166
(c) 167
(d) 169.

43. In which case, the Supreme Court of India held that there is no justification for permitting only Brahmins to carry out the necessary rites and rituals as priests?
(a) Arum Roy v. Union of India, (2002 SC)
(b) Ismail Faruqui v. Union of India, (1994 SC)
(c) Bhuri Nath v. State of] & K, (1997 SC)
(d) N. Adithayan v. Travancore Devaswom Board, (2002 SC).

44. A person can become a Minister without being a member of either House of Parliament for a period of:
(a) one year consecutively
(b) nine consecutive months
(c) three consecutive months
(d) six consecutive months.

45. Under the Constitution of India freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion is subject to:
(a) public order and health
(b) public order, morality and to the other provisions of Part III
(c) public order and morality
(d) public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of Part III.

46. In which of the following articles of the Constitution of India the ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’ is provided?
(a) Article 309
(b) Article 312
(c) Article 310
(d) Article 311.

47. Under which of the following articles of the Constitution of India, the Tribunals other than Administrative Tribunals can be created by the appropriate Legislature?
(a) Article 323
(b) Article 324
(c) Article 323A
(d) Article 323B.

48. Right to enforce which articles of the Constitution of India cannot be suspended during the emergency?
(a) Article 19 and 20
(b) Article 20 and 21
(c) Article 14, 19 and 21
(d) Article 21 and 22.

49. Which one of the following is not a ground mentioned in Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India on the basis of which reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression can be imposed?
(a) friendly relation with foreign states
(b) incitement to an offence
(c) public interest
(d) the Security of the State.

50. In which case the Supreme Court of India held that all prostitutes and sex workers also have a right to live with human dignity under Article 21
(a) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab, (1996 SC)
(b) Budhadev Karmaskar v. State of W.B., (2011 SC)
(c) Sabia khan v. State of U.P., (2010 SC)
(d) Lata Singh v. State of U.P., (2006 SC).

Section II – Jurisprudence is continued in the next page.

Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

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