AIBE XV 15 Previous Question Paper & Mock Test Series

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1. Section 66A of Information Technology Act was held unconstitutional in the case of
a) Justice K. S. Putta swamy Vs Union of India
b) M P Sharma Vs Satish Chandra
c) Shreya Singhal Vs Union Of India
d) Gagan Harsh Sharma Vs The State of Maharashtra

2. A Teacher is not a workman within the purview of Industrial Disputes Act, held in the case of
a) The Workmen Vs Greaves Cotton & Co. Ltd. & Ors
b) John Joseph Khokar Vs Bhadange B. S. & ors
c) A. Sundarambal Vs Government of Goa
d) Dinesh Sharma and Ors. Vs State of Bihar

3. According to Factories Act
a) “child” means a person who has not completed his fifteenth year of age;
b) “child” means a person who has not completed his fourteenth year of age
c) “child” means a person who has not completed his eighteenth year of age
d) “child” means a person who has not completed his sixteenth year of age

4. The UNCITRAL Model Law and Rules do not become part of the Arbitration Act so as to become an aid to construe the provisions of the Act.- held in the case of
a) Union of India Vs East Coast Boat Builders and Engineers Ltd.,
b) Union of India Vs M.C. Mehta
c) Tata Press Ltd Vs Union of India
d) Union of India Vs Indian Change Chrome Ltd

5. According to Section 7(4) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, an arbitration agreement is in writing if it is contained in—
a) a document signed by the parties;
b) an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams or other means of telecommunication which provide a record of the agreement;
c) an exchange of statements of claim and defence in which the existence of the agreement is alleged by one party and not denied by the other.
d) All of the above

6. Waiver of right to object deviance from arbitration agreement is mentioned under ______ of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act
a) Section 7
b) Section 4
c) Section 20
d) Section 22

7. A intentionally and falsely leads B to believe that certain land belongs to A, and thereby induces B to buy and pay for it. The land afterwards becomes the property of A, and A seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that, at the time of the sale, he had no title. He will not be allowed to prove his want of title.- Which Section of the Evidence Act is applicable?
a) Section 92
b) Section 124
c) Section 115
d) Section 101

8. The Arbitration Act 1996 repeals
a) The Arbitration Act, 1940,
b) The Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937
c) the Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961.
d) All of the above

9. Section 265A to 265L, Chapter XXIA of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the concept of
a) Unlawful Assembly
b) Arrest without warrant
c) search and seizures
d) Plea bargaining

10. Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders is dealt under
a) Section 109 of Cr.P.C.
b) Section 110 of Cr.P.C
c) Section 111 of Cr.P.C.
d) None of the above

11. X,Y, Z jointly promise to pay A an amount of Rs. 50,000/- Subsequently X,Y became untraceable. Can A compel Z to pay ?
a) A can, under Section 43 para 1
b) A can under Section 49 para 1
c) A cannot and will have to wait till X,Y become traceable
d) Z can be compelled only for one third

12. Delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them. This process is termed as
a) Agency
b) Bailment
c) Guarantee
d) Contingency

13. Section 14A inserted by the THE SPECIFIC RELIEF (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2018, relates to
a) Power of the Courts to engage experts
b) Establishment of Special Court
c) Expeditious disposal of case
d) Specific performance with regard to contracts

14. Parliament may by law establish Administrative Tribunals under ______ of the Constitution
a) Article 323B
b) Article 323A
c) Article 233
d) Article 323

15. The Bar Council of India has to lay down the standards of professional conduct and etiquette for the Advocates under
a) Section 3 of the Advocate Act, 1961
b) Section 7 (1) (b) of the Advocate Act, 1961
c) Section 17 of the Advocate Act, 1961
d) Section 18 of the Advocate Act, 1961

16. According to Section 49 of the Advocate Act of 1961 the bar Council of India has power to make rules
a) qualifications for membership of a Bar Council and the disqualifications for such membership
b) the class or category of persons entitled to be enrolled as advocates
c) the standards of legal education to be observed by universities in India and the inspection of universities for that purpose.
d) All of the above

17. Requisites of a valid adoption : no adoption shall be valid unless-<br>(i) the person adopting has the capacity, and also the right, to take in adoption;<br>(ii) the person giving in adoption has the capacity to do so;<br>(iii) the person adopted is capable of being taken in adoption; and<br>(iv) the adoption is made in compliance with the other conditions mentioned in this Chapter. – mentioned under
a) Section 6 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
b) Section 8 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
c) Section 12 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
d) Section 10 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act

18. According to the Muslim women(protection of right son marriage) act, 2019, any pronouncement of talaq as defined under the Act by a Muslim husband upon his wife, by words, either spoken or written or in electronic form or in any other manner whatsoever, shall be
a) Void
b) Cognizable
c) compoundable
d) All of the above

19. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act (HSAA) 2005 provides for women:
a) coparcenary rights at par with men;
b) inheritance rights in agricultural land from her parents at par with her brothers;
c) inheritance of the self-acquired agricultural land of her deceased husband
d) All of the above

20. Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act provides for
a) Custody of the Children
b) Permanent alimony and maintenance
c) Maintenance Pendente lite
d) Division of matrimonial property

21. A Hindu wife had been living with her children and all the children had been brought up by her without any assistance and help from the husband many years. The wife was entitled to separate residence and maintenance under
a) Section 18 (2) (f) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
b) Section 18 (2) (d) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
c) Section 18 (2) (a) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
d) Section 18 (2) (g) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act

22. Imposition of compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences is dealt under
a) Section 33 of CPC
b) Section 35A of CPC
c) Section 30 of CPC
d) Section 35 of CPC

23. Which provision under the Code of Civil Procedure deals with substituted service of summons upon the defendant
a) O.5 R.19A
b) O.5 R.19
c) O.5 R.20
d) O.5 R.21

24. The question is, whether A owes B rupees 10,000. Which of the following statements are relevant under Evidence Act;
a) The facts that A asked C to lend him money,
b) D said to C in A’s presence and hearing– “I advise you not to trust A, for he owes B 10,000 rupees,”
c) A went away without making any answer
d) All of the above

25. So much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered by the police may be proved under
a) Section 25 of the Evidence Act
b) Section 26 of the Evidence Act
c) Section 27 of the Evidence Act
d) Section 29 of the Evidence Act

26. When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law or of science, or art, or as to identity of handwriting, or finger impressions, the opinions upon that point of persons specially skilled in such foreign law, science or art, or in questions as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions are relevant facts. – this is under ______ of the Evidence Act
a) Section 42
b) Section 45
c) Section 50
d) Section 55

27. According to Environmental Protection Act, 1986, ‘environmental pollutant’ means
a) any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, helpful to environment
b) only gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
c) any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
d) any solid, liquid present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment

28. National Green Tribunal cannot exercise its Jurisdiction with reference to
a) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
b) Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
c) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
d) both A & B

29. An attempt to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details (and sometimes, indirectly, money) by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication – is known as
a) Pharming
b) Smishing
c) Phishing
d) Didling

30. The Plea Bargaining is applicable only in respect of those offences for which punishment of imprisonment is up to a period of
a) 7 years.
b) 10 years
c) 11 years
d) 14 years

31. “From a plain reading of Section 195 Cr.P.C. it is manifest that it comes into operation at the stage when the Court intends to take cognizance of an offence under Section 190(1) Cr PC.; and it has nothing to do with the statutory power of the police to investigate into an F.I.R. which discloses a cognizable offence….In other words, the statutory power of the Police to investigate under the Code is not in any way controlled or circumscribed by Section 195 Cr.PC.” – This was held by the Supreme Court in the case of
a) Nalini Vs State of Tamilnadu
b) Raj Singh Vs State [(1998)]
c) Shamsher Singh Vs State of Punjab
d) State of Himachal Pradesh Vs Tara Dutta

32. Indemnity contract is defined under
a) Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act
b) Section 67 of the Indian Contract Act
c) Section 127 of the Indian Contract Act
d) Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act

33. Peek Vs. Gurney is a famous case related to
a) Coercion
b) Fraud
c) Mistake of fact
d) Mistake of law

34. Which provision under Criminal procedure Code, 1973 deals with the procedure to be adopted by the Magistrate to record confessions and statements?
a) Section 162
b) Section 164
c) Section 163A
d) Section 165

35. Attachment of property of person absconding can be done under Section ______ of Cr.P.C.
a) 83
b) 82
c) 85
d) 86

36. Magistrate may dispense with personal attendance of accused under Section ______ of Cr.P.C
a) 201
b) 204
c) 205
d) 200

37. The Supreme Court invoked the principle of ‘Transformative Constitutionalism’ in the case of
a) Navtej Singh Johar Vs Union of India (2018)
b) Suresh Kumar Koushal Vs Naz Foundation(2010)
c) Naz Foundation Vs Government of NCT of Delhi, (2009)
d) Aruna Roy Vs Union of India, (2002)

38. The provisions of Indian Penal Code apply also to any offence committed by
a) any citizen of India in any place without and beyond India;
b) any person on any ship or aircraft registered in India wherever it may be
c) any person in any place without and beyond India committing offence targeting a computer resource located in India.
d) All of the above

39. Section 105 (H) of Cr.P.C deals
a) Forfeiture of property in certain cases.
b) Notice of forfeiture of property
c) Management of properties seized or forfeited
d) Identifying unlawfully acquired property

40. Bar to taking cognizance after lapse of the period of limitation – is dealt under
a) Section 178 of Cr. P.C.
b) Section 469 of Cr. P.C.
c) Section 478 of Cr. P.C.
d) Section 168 of Cr. P.C.

41. “decree-holder” means
a) any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
b) any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order incapable of execution has been made
c) any Citizen in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
d) any corporation in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made

42. Under the Patent Act which of the following are not patentable?
a) a method of agriculture or horticulture
b) a presentation of information
c) topography of integrated circuits
d) All of the above

43. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) has replaced pre-existing
a) GATT
b) BIRPI
c) TPRM
d) PCT

44. Anuradha Bhasin Vs Union Of India on 10 January, 2020 relates to a challenge under Article 32 of the Constitution seeking issuance of an appropriate writ
a) for setting aside orders of the Government by which all modes of communication including Internet have been shut down in J&K
b) for setting aside orders of the Government by which private property was sought to be acquired in J&K
c) for setting aside orders of the Government by which J&K was constituted as a UT
d) for setting aside orders of the Government by which Ladakh was separated.

45. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was struck down under Art. 19(1) (a) read with Article 19 (2) in the case of
a) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy Vs Union of India
b) Kharak singh Vs State of U.P.
c) Govinda Vs State of M.P.
d) Shreya Singhal Vs Union of India

46. Article 145(3) of the Indian Constitution states that The minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be
a) Two
b) Three
c) Five
d) Nine

47. The utility of Public Interest Litigation
a) Liberalised locus standi
b) The proceedings are Non-Adversarial
c) Procedural requirements are liberalized
d) All of the above

48. The petitioner, a professor of political science who had done substantial research and deeply interested in ensuring proper implementation of the constitutional provisions, challenged the practice followed by the state of Bihar in repromulgating a number of ordinances without getting the approval of the legislature. The court held that the petitioner as a member of public has ‘sufficient interest’ to maintain a petition under Article 32 – This relates to the case of
a) Parmanand Katara Vs Union of India – AIR 1989, SC 2039
b) D.C.Wadhwa Vs State of Bihar, AIR 1987 SC 579
c) Neeraja Choudhari Vs State of Madhya Pradesh AIR 1984SC1099
d) Chameli Singh Vs State of U.P. AIR 1996,SC1051

49. Where a legal wrong or a legal injury is caused to a person or to a determinate class of persons by reason of violation of any constitutional or legal right or any burden is imposed in contravention of any constitutional or legal provision or without authority of law or any such legal wrong or legal injury or illegal burden is threatened and such person or determinate class of persons by reasons of poverty, helplessness or disability or socially or economically disadvantaged position unable to approach the court for relief, any member of public can maintain an application for an appropriate direction, order or writ in the High Court under Article 226 and in case any breach of fundamental rights of such persons or determinate class of persons, in this court under Article 32 seeking judicial redress for the legal wrong or legal injury caused to such person or determinate class of persons.” – Justice Bhagwati in the case of
a) Peoples Union for Democratic Rights Vs Union of India
b) Ashok Kumar Pandey Vs State of West Bengal
c) S. P. Gupta Vs Union of India
d) Janata Dal Vs H. S. Chowdhary

50. The definition of ‘money’ under GST law does not include
a) Letter of Credit
b) Currency held for numismatic value
c) Pay order
d) Traveler cheque

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Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

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