AIBE IX 2016 – All India Bar Exam 9 – Previous Question Paper

This is the free previous question paper from AIBE IX or AIBE 9, the ninth edition of the All India Bar Examination that was held in 2016.

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The answers ( answer keys ) for all previous question papers published on LawMint.com are available only for users registered for LawMint.com AIBE Online Prep Courses.

1. Which among the following is authorized under the Information Technology Act, 2000 to prescribe the security procedures and practices for the purpose of sections 14 and 15.of the act?
a) Central Government
b) State Government
c) Certifying authority
d) Issuing authority

 

2. The essential ingredient of the tort of negligence are
(1)When one owes a duty of care towards the other.
(2)When one commits a breach of that duty and
(3)The other person suffers damage as a consequence thereof

Choose correct response for below
a) None of them are essential ingredients
b) Only the first is an essential ingredient
c) All of them are essential ingredients
d) Even if the first is absent the tort of negligence is committed

 

3. Vicarious liability includes
a) Liability of the principal for the tort of his agent
b) Liability of the master for the tort of his servant
c) Liability of the partners for each others tort
d) All of the above

 

4. Necessity rule as to admissibility of evidence is applicable when the maker of a statement
a) is dead or has become incapable of giving evidence
b) is a person who can be found but his attendance can not be procured without unreasonable delay or expenses
c) is a person who cannot be found
d) all of the above

 

5. Secondary evidence of a document means
a) Copies of the document
b) oral account of the contents of the documents
c) both an and b
d) none of the above

 

6. A Will is required to be proved by calling at least one attesting witness
a) when it is registered
b) when it is unregistered
c) when it is admitted
d) All of the above

 

7. Any person in section 106 of Evidence Act refers to
a) party to the suit
b) a stranger to the suit
c) a person who is not a party to the suit but interested in the outcome of the suit
d) all of the above

 

8. In a cognizable case under IPC, police have the
a) Authority to arrest a person without – warrant
b) Authority to investigate the offence without permission of the Magistrate
c) Both a and b
d) Either (a) or (b)

 

9. During investigation a search can be conducted without warrant by
a) any police officer
b) by the investigating officer
c) both (a and b)
d) either a or b

 

10. Committal proceedings under section 209 of Cr. PC are in the nature of
a) aid in investigation
b) inquiry
c) trial
d) either inquiry or trial

 

11. Which is correct
a) proposal + acceptance = promise
b) promise + consideration = agreement
c) agreement + enforceability = contract
d) all of the above

 

12. Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer
a) when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
b) when it is put in course of transmission him so as to be out of power of the acceptor
c) when the acceptance is communicated to the proposer
d) all of the above

 

13. What is true of perpetual injunction
a) It is a judicial process
b) preventive in nature
c) the thing prevented is a wrongful act
d) all of the above

 

14. The provisions of do not apply to trade unions registered under the provisions of Trade Union Act, 1926
a) The Co-operative Societies Act, 1912
b) The Companies Act, 1956
c) Both a and b
c) Neither a nor b

 

15. According to Salmond every legal right
a) Cannot be vested in a person
b) Is availed against a person upon whom lies the correlative duty
c) Cannot oblige the person bound to an act or omission in favour of the person entitled
d) Cannot have a title

 

16. The binding force of precedent is destroyed or weakened by
a) Public opinion
b) Abrogated decision
c) Resjudicata
d) Lis pendens

 

17. Which of the following is true in respect of a Government contract which does not confirm to provisions of Article 299 of the Constitution
a) They are not enforceable in court against the parties
b) They can be rectified by the Government
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

 

18. State Bar Council under the provisions of section 35 of the Advocates Act, 1961 has the authority to
a) Reprimand the advocate
b) Suspend the advocate from practice for such period of time as it may deem fit
c) Remove the name of the advocate from the state roll of advocates
d) All of these

 

19. Which of the following is untrue regarding qualification for a person to be admitted on the state rolls maintained by State Bar Councils
a) The minimum age of requirement is 21 years.
b) He must be an Indian Citizen
c) He must not have been convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude
d) They must not have been convicted of an offence under the provisions of the Untouchability (Offences) Act 1958

 

20. Time which has begun to run can be stopped in case of
a) Minority
b) Insanity
c) Idiocy
d) None of the above

 

21. Which of the following statements hold true for adjudicatory bodies
a) Doctrine of stare Decisis applies to them
b) Doctrine of Resjudicate does not apply to them
c) Inherent lack of jurisdiction in a tribunal ‘can not be cured or created by the act of the parties
d) None of the above

 

22. The Supreme court held in V.C. Rangadurai vs D. Gopalan, An advocate who has been disbarred or suspended from practice must prove after expiration of a reasonable length of time that
a) He appreciates the insignificance of his dereliction
b) He has lived a consistent life of poverty and integrity
c) He possesses the good character necessary to guarantee uprightness and honour in his professional dealings
d) The burden is on the applicant to establish that he entitled to resume the privilege of practicing law without restrictions.

 

23. The present Arbitration and Conciliation Act of 1996 is based on
a) Constitution of India
b) Supreme Court of India guidelines
c) European Commercial Arbitration Procedure
d) UNCITRAL

 

24. Who among the following is authorized to issue regulations regarding shelf prospectus
a) SEBI
b) Central Government
c) Company Law Board
d) National Company Law Tribunal

 

25. Which of the following is not included in the definition of cattle as given under the Indian Forest Act, 1927
a) Rams
b) Kids
c) Kittens
d) None of these

Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty

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