TS SET Law Previous Question Paper III 2013

TS SET LAW 2013 Paper III Telangana State Eligibility Test Previous Question paper and Online Mock Test

26. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I
A. Common intention
B. Good faith
C. Dishonest intention
D. Common object

List II
1. Constructive Liability
2. Joint liability
3. Theft
4. Mistake of fact

Code : A B C D
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 1 4 3 2
(D) 1 3 4 2

27. Sec. 511 of Indian Penal Code deals with
(A) Making impossible attempts punishable offence
(B) Making preparation punishable
(C) Making mental intention punishable
(D) Making motive punishable

28. A threatens to publish a defamatory statement concerning B unless B gives him money and B in consequence gives A money. A commits the offence of
(A) Theft
(B) Robbery
(C) Criminal Intimidation
(D) Extortion

29. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List I
A. Death is caused to safeguard property from mischief by fire
B. Death caused by a child of six years
C. Death by an act with the intention of causing bodily injury which is sufficient ordinarily to cause death
D. Death of trespasser of the house who was escaping

List II
1) Exception 2 to Sec. 300
2) Murder
3) No offence
4) Right of private defence

Codes : A B C D
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 4 3 2 1

30. Sec. 292 I.P.C. makes the selling, hiring, distributing, publicly exhibiting, importing etc. of obscene books, pamphlets, writing, drawing etc. are offence. Which one of the following is correct Mens rea is
(A) required only for selling and hiring books
(B) required only for exhibiting
(C) required only for importing and exporting
(D) not required at all for offences under S. 292

31. Taking property dishonestly from the dead body
(A) does not amount to any offence under IPC
(B) amounts to the offence of theft
(C) amounts to the offence of criminal misappropriation
(D) amounts to the offence of criminal breach of trust

32. Give the chronological order in which environmental legislations in India are enacted
(I) Water Act
(II) Environmental Protection Act
(III) Air Act
(IV) Biodiversity Act
Code :
(A) (I) (IV) (III) (II)
(B) (IV) (II) (III) (I)
(C) (I) (II) (III) (IV)
(D) (I) (III) (II) (IV)

33. Noise limit in residential zones is
(A) 15 decibles
(B) 35 decibles
(C) 60 decibles
(D) 25 decibles

34. Kyoto protocol is with reference to
(A) emission reduction
(B) preservation of biodiversity
(C) wild life protection
(D) prevention of natural disasters

35. Match the following
List – I – Environmental Problem
I. Nuisance due to saw mill
II. Deliberate fouling of water
III. Crop damage due to water pollution
IV. License to construct hotel in public park

List – II – Appropriate Relief
1. Compensation
2. Mandamus writ
3. Fine
4. Injunction

Code :
I II III IV
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 2 3 1 4

36. Reserved forests can be dereserved by
(A) State Government
(B) Central Government
(C) State Government after approved by Central Government
(D) Cannot be dereserved

37. Wild Life Protection Act is enacted in
(A) 1972
(B) 1974
(C) 1991
(D) 1981

38. Environmental Impact Assessment is based on the principle of
(A) Polluter pay
(B) Precaution
(C) Intergenerational equity
(D) Public trust

39. ‘International law is vanishing point of jurisprudence’ – who said ?
(A) Pufendorf
(B) Holland
(C) Salmond
(D) Oppenheim

40. Which of the following is example of protectorate state ?
(A) Denmark
(B) USA
(C) Switzerland
(D) Bhutan

41. Essential elements of international custom are
(I) Practice
(II) Active consent
(III) Acceptance as law
(IV) ICJ approval
Code :
(A) (I) (III) & (IV)
(B) (I) (II) & (III)
(C) (I) & (IV)
(D) (I) & (III)

42. What ends when extradition begins ?
(A) Asylum
(B) Immunity
(C) Privilege
(D) Repatriation

43. Jus soli is a rule applicable to
(A) Extradition
(B) Recognition
(C) Nationality
(D) Custom

44. Which one of the following is not the objective of UNO ?
(A) Maintenance of international peace and security
(B) Promotion of friendly relation between States
(C) Pacific settlement of disputes
(D) Establishment of democratic governments throughout the world

45. Identify the Indian who did not serve as ICJ judge ?
(A) Nagendra Singh
(B) R.S. Pathak
(C) Dalveer Bhandari
(D) S.S. Nijhar

46. MFN clause means
(A) Most Favourite Nation Clause
(B) Must Favoured Nation Clause
(C) Most Favoured Nation Clause
(D) Major Favourite Nation Clause

47. Petition for dissloution of Hindu marriage may be filed
(A) Any day after the marriage
(B) Any day after six months
(C) Any day after one year
(D) Never

48. Match the following :
List A – Matrimonial Remedy
I. Restitution of Conjugal Rights
II. Judicial separation
III. Divorce
IV. Annulment

List B – Applicable provision of Hindu Marriage Act
1. S. 13
2. S. 9
3. S. 11
4. S. 10

Code : I II III IV
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 2 3 4 1

49. To bring out the marital relationship in a Muslim marriage
(A) Religious ceremonies are necessary
(B) Religious ceremonies are not necessary
(C) Religious ceremonies are necessary in South India
(D) Registration is compulsory

50. Under Hindu Marriage Act which of the following are grounds for divorce ?
(I) Bigamy
(II) Fraud
(III) Conversion
(IV) Desertion
Code :
(A) (I) & (II)
(B) (III) & (IV)
(C) (I) & (III)
(D) (II) (III) & (IV)

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *