WB SET Law 2020 Previous Question Paper & Mock Test Series

WB SET West Bengal SET Law 2024 and 2025 - 100 Mock Tests & Model Papers Series

Based on latest West Bengal State Eligibility Test Law Paper II Syllabus
Law Subjects Overview Material covering important topics and concepts - 650 page PDF Book
50 Full Length Mock Tests - New Pattern Paper II, with 100 questions each
50 Mini Practice Mock tests - with 25 questions each
Unlimited Practice - New Questions in every mock test with every attempt
Answer choices of all questions shuffled randomly for better practice
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Includes new comprehension based questions
Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
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1. The doctrine of contributory negligence is not applicable, when negligence is committed by
(A) Women
(B) Child
(C) State
(D) None of the options

2. Choose the correct statement out of the following: ‘Volenti non fit injuria’ means:
(A) A specific tort
(B) Is a good defence if there is knowledge of the risk.
(C) Is a good defence if injury to risk is consented.
(D) Is a good defence in cases of rescue.

3. The principle of ‘Novus actus interveniens’ applies to determine
(A) Vicarious Liability
(B) Strict Liability
(C) Act of God
(D) Remoteness of Damage

4. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched in the maxim ‘Injuria sine damno’ in the code: (i) actionable per se (ii) not actionable (iii) actionable on proof of damage (iv) actionable on violation of legal right
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)

5. The tort involved in Hurst v Picture Theatres Ltd. Case is
(A) Defamation
(B) Nuisance
(C) Negligence
(D) Trespass

6. Res ipsa loquitur means:
(A) As you sow, so you reap.
(B) Guilty shall be punished.
(C) The thing speaks for itself.
(D) The guilty speaks lies.

7. Mark the correct answer in the following statements:
(A) Dangerous goods arise on proof of negligence.
(B) Strict liability arises only when the thing causing harm escapes.
(C) Liability for dangerous goods in India is absolute.
(D) Liability for dangerous goods in India is strict.

8. In Donoghue v Stevenson Case, the duty of a manufacturer was fixed towards
(A) retailer only
(B) buyer from retailer
(C) ultimate consumer
(D) None of the options

9. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India gave the ruling that sovereign immunity of the state is subject to the Fundamental Rights?
(A) Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain v State of UP
(B) State of Rajasthan v Vidhyawati
(C) People’s Union for Democratic Rights v State of Bihar
(D) Shyam Sundar v State of Rajasthan

10. Rule of Absolute liability was propounded by
(A) Justice Bhagwati
(B) Justice Sodhi
(C) Justice Ahmadi
(D) Justice Kuldeep Singh

11. The rule laid down in Re Polemis Case is that the defendant shall be liable for all
(A) direct consequences of his act.
(B) direct consequences of his act, if he could foresee some damage to the plaintiff from his act.
(C) direct consequences of his act, only if he could foresee the kind of damage which has actually occurred.
(D) foreseeable damage.

12. The actus veus of omission commands ______.
(A) there must be moral duty
(B) the state has option to fix criminal liability
(C) there should be legal duty to act
(D) the act performed is due to unavoidable accident

13. “Tortious Liability arises from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages”. This statement is made by
(A) Salmond
(B) Dias
(C) Julius Stone
(D) Winfield

14. Who is a ‘Consumer’ under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
(A) A person who gives his pants for stitching to a tailor.
(B) A person who purchases goods for sale in his shop.
(C) A person who purchases a car for being used as a taxi in his taxi service.
(D) A person who avails of medical services free of cost.

15. Which of the following section of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 defines the term ‘Owner’?
(A) Sec. 2 (10)
(B) Sec. 2 (20)
(C) Sec. 2 (30)
(D) None of the options

16. Duties without a corresponding rights are called
(A) Absolute duty
(B) Relative duty
(C) Secondary duty
(D) None of the options

17. Fiction theory is related to which one of the following concepts?
(A) Legal personality
(B) Ownership
(C) Liability
(D) Justice

18. Who of the following has made distinction between distributive justice and corrective justice?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) John Stuart
(D) John Austin

19. Adverse possession may lead to loss of
(A) Possession
(B) Power
(C) Ownership
(D) Liberty

20. ‘Ratio decidendi’ may be defined as (A) statement of law applied to the legal problems disclosed by facts. (B) finding of material facts, direct and inferential, based on earlier case law.
(A) A only
(B) B only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the options

21. The term ‘Legal Theory’ has been first time coined by
(A) Hans Kelsen
(B) W. Friedmann
(C) Salmond
(D) Ronald Dworkin

22. Which one of the following is not a theory of corporate personality?
(A) Fiction theory
(B) Realist theory
(C) Bracket theory
(D) Will theory

23. The negligence which is a result of ignorance, thoughtlessness or forgetfulness is (A) advertent negligence (B) inadvertent negligence
(A) A only
(B) B only
(C) (A) and (B) both
(D) None of the options

24. Which of the following is not correct?
(A) In a contract for sale by sample there is implied condition that bulk shall correspond with the sample.
(B) In contract for sale by description there is implied condition that goods shall correspond with the description.
(C) An express condition can negative a condition implied by law.
(D) In sale by sample as well as description, it is not sufficient that bulk corresponds with description if goods do not also correspond with description.

25. Which of the following is not true about nature of partnership?
(A) A society for charitable purposes is a partnership.
(B) Partnership firm is not a legal person.
(C) Registration of partnership is not mandatory.
(D) Partnership is the relation between partners.

26. Which of the following is not covered by the definition of Negotiable Instrument?
(A) A Bill of Lading
(B) A Cheque
(C) Promissory Note
(D) Bill of Exchange

27. A registered company is not
(A) a body corporate
(B) a legal person
(C) a citizen of India
(D) All of the options

28. An application for allotment of Director Identification number can be made to the
(A) Central Government
(B) State Government
(C) Registrar of the Companies
(D) None of the options

29. Which of the following is an offer?
(A) Catalogue of books indicating the price
(B) Invitation of tenders
(C) Advertising the auction sale
(D) Submission of a tender

30. Which of the following is not true about valid consideration?
(A) Past consideration is a good consideration.
(B) Consideration may be given by other person.
(C) Consideration must be adequate.
(D) Consideration should be given at the desire of promisor.

31. Which of the following is not true about void agreement?
(A) Minors agreement is void.
(B) Unlawful agreements are void.
(C) All void agreements are unlawful.
(D) Unlawful agreement in part is also void.

32. Contract of Insurance is a
(A) Contract of Indemnity u/s 124
(B) Contingent contract
(C) Contract of guarantee
(D) None of the options

33. Which of the following is not essential of valid ratification?
(A) Ratification of the acts done on behalf of other persons.
(B) Ratification of whole transactions.
(C) Ratification with full knowledge of facts.
(D) Ratified act should not be injurious to third person.

34. Match List-I with List-II and give correct answer by using codes given below: List – I (a) Jurisprudence is science of just and unjust (b) Jurisprudence is science of first principle of law (c) Jurisprudence is philosophical aspect of law (d) Jurisprudence is no more a formal science than physiology List – II (i) Salmond (ii) Gray (iii) Ulpian (iv) Cicero Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

35. Match List-I with List-II and give correct answer by using codes given below: List – I (a) Concept of law (b) Province of Jurisprudence Determined (c) Some Reflections on Jurisprudence (d) Limits of Jurisprudence Defined List – II (i) Austin (ii) Bentham (iii) Hart (iv) Buckland Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

36. Who said that customs are superior to legislation?
(A) Henry Maine
(B) Sauigny
(C) HLA Hart
(D) Hans Kelson

37. Match List-I with List-II and give correct answer by using codes given below: List – I (a) Interest theory (b) Realist theory of corporate personality (c) Social solidarity (d) Social engineering List – II (i) Dugit (ii) Jhering (iii) Gierke (iv) Pound Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

38. Who said “law like language develops with the life of people”?
(A) Sauigny
(B) Henry Maine
(C) Austin
(D) Hegel

39. Which of the following is not requisite essential of a valid custom?
(A) Reasonableness
(B) Antiquity
(C) Conformity with statute law
(D) Conformity with public policy

40. Who propounded that there are 2 types of rules — Primary and Secondary rules?
(A) HLA Hart
(B) Kelson
(C) Pound
(D) Maine

41. Which of the following is not a jural postulate of legal system as propounded by Roseoe Pound?
(A) There will be no intentional aggression.
(B) Members of society will act in good faith.
(C) People will make use of what they have created.
(D) People will cause injury to others during their course of work.

42. Match List-I with List-II and give correct answer by using codes given below: List-I (a) Right (b) Liberty (c) Power (d) Immunity List-II (i) Disability (ii) Duty (iii) No right (iv) Liability Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

43. Match List-I with List-II and give correct answer by using codes given below: List-I (a) Goods of principal in hands of agent (b) Pledgers possession (c) Author’s copyright (d) Owner’s watch List-II (i) Corporeal possession (ii) Mediate possession (iii) Immediate possession (iv) Incorporeal Possession Codes:(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

44. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give correct answer with the help of codes given below: Assertion (A) : Austin said laws set by sovereign to the members of political society is positive law. Reason (R) : Austin emphasised on the element of sanction.
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

45. By the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 which of the following clause (s) was/were inserted in section 100 of the Indian Penal Code?
(A) Fifthly
(B) Sixthly
(C) Seventhly
(D) Seventhly and eighthly

46. ‘In order to convict a person vicariously liable under section 34 or section 149, Indian Penal Code, it is not necessary to prove that each and everyone of them had indulged in overts act’ was held in
(A) Major Singh v State of Punjab, AIR 2003 sec 342
(B) Mrinal Das v State of Tripura, AIR 2011 SC 3753
(C) Rangaswami v State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 1989 SC 1137
(D) Ram Bilas Sing. v State of Bihar, AIR 1989 SC 1593

47. Where no sum is expressed to which a five may extend, the amount of five to which the offender is liable is
(A) unlimited, but shall not be excessive.
(B) limited, but shall not be excessive.
(C) to be fixed by the court in proportion to imprisonment.
(D) unlimited, but shall not be exemplary.

48. The law relating to ‘consent known to be given under fear or misconception’ is given under
(A) Section 88, I.P.C.
(B) Section 89, I.P.C.
(C) Section 90, I.P.C.
(D) Section 94, I.P.C.

49. For Criminal conspiracy, it is immaterial whether the illegal act is the ultimate object of such agreement, or is merely
(A) accidental to that object.
(B) collateral to that object.
(C) incidental to that object.
(D) ancillary to that object.

50. If the assembly is an unlawful assembly within the meaning of section 141, I.P.C., the offender will be punishable under
(A) Section 144, I.P.C
(B) Section 145, I.P.C
(C) Section 149, I.P.C
(D) Section 153A, I.P.C

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WB SET West Bengal SET Law 2024 and 2025 - 100 Mock Tests & Model Papers Series

Based on latest West Bengal State Eligibility Test Law Paper II Syllabus
Law Subjects Overview Material covering important topics and concepts - 650 page PDF Book
50 Full Length Mock Tests - New Pattern Paper II, with 100 questions each
50 Mini Practice Mock tests - with 25 questions each
Unlimited Practice - New Questions in every mock test with every attempt
Answer choices of all questions shuffled randomly for better practice
Database of over 9500 MCQs covering the entire syllabus
Includes new comprehension based questions
Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers and Desktops

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