MH-SET Previous Question Paper Law 2017 P-III Mock Tests

MH-SET Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Previous Question Paper Law 2017 P III Mock Test Series Model Papers

MH SET Maharashtra SET Law - 100 Mock Tests & Model Papers Series

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This is the full previous question paper from MH-SET 2017 Paper III Law Subject, i.e. the Maharashtra State Eligibility Test examination conducted in 2017 for eligibility for Assistant Professor posts in Maharashtra & Goa.

The official answer key for this question paper, along with other all recent previous papers and 100 Mock tests / model papers with unlimited practice are included in our online MHSET Law Online Practice Pack.


1# Indian Constitution consists of :
A# 9 Schedules
B# 10 Schedules
C# 11 Schedules
D# 12 Schedules

2# Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R), and with the help of codes given below, point out correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : Under Article 123 of the Constitution President has the power to promulgate ordinances during recess of parliament.
Reason (R) : An ordinance promulgated under Article 123 shall have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.
A# (A) is correct, (R) is false
B# (A) is false, (R) is true
C# Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
D# Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

3# Nature of ‘consultation’ with Chief Justice of India in matters of appointment of Judge to a High Court is described as :
A# Inspection of the file by the Chief Justice
B# Concurrence of the Chief Justice
C# Giving regard to the opinion of the Chief Justice
D# Formal reference to the Chief Justice without any obligation to carry out his wishes

4# Which of the following doctrines are not related to the principles for determining the legislative competency of parliament and state legislatures ?
A# Colourable legislation
B# Severability
C# Pith and substance
D# Territorial nexus

5# Which of the following amendments are introduced for establishing local self-government ?
A# Sixty-third and sixty-fourth
B# Seventy-third and seventy- fourth
C# Eighty-third and eighty-fourth
D# Ninety-third and ninety-fourth

6# Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List I
(a) Unnikrishan Vs. State of A.P.
(b) Mithu Vs. State of Punjab
(c) Ajay Hasia Vs. Khalid Mujib
(d) D. C. Wadhwa Vs. State of Bihar

List II
(1) Validity of Section 303 of I.P.C.
(2) Concept of state under Article 12
(3) Ordinance making Power of the President
(4) Right to education

Select the answer choice corresponding to the order (a) (b) (c) (d) :
A# (1) (2) (3) (4)
B# (3) (2) (1) (4)
C# (4) (1) (2) (3)
D# (2) (1) (3) (4)

7# Which of the following is not a directive principle of state policy under Part IV of the Constitution ?
A# Equal justice and free legal aid
B# Separation of judiciary from executive
C# Safeguard public property and to abjure violence
D# Uniform Civil Code for all citizens

8# Select the correct answer of the following statements using codes given below : Under Article 324 of the Constitution Election Commission of India has the power to conduct the following elections :
(1) Election to parliament
(2) Election to the legislature of the state
(3) Election to local bodies
(4) Election to the offices of the President and Vice President of India
A# (1), (2) and (4)
B# (1), (3) and (4)
C# (1), (4) and (2)
D# (2), (3) and (4)

9# Who amongst the following leading scholars has defined administrative law as the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action ?
A# Kenneth Culp Davis
B# Dicey
C# Sir Ivor Jennings
D# Griffith

10# is regarded as an epoch- making decision wherein the Supreme Court made a categorical statement that the distinction between quasi-judicial and administrative ought to be discarded for the purposes of giving a hearing to the affected party.
A# Manilal Vs. Delhi Administration
B# Union of India Vs. B. N. Jha
C# Commissioner of Police Vs. Gordhandas Bhanji
D# A. K. Kraipak Vs. Union of India

11# Assertion (A) : The concept of Natural Justice entails two ideas namely, audi alteram partem and nemo judex in re sua.
Reason (R) : It is aptly averred that the principles of natural justice are not fixed, but are flexible and variable. These principles cannot be put in a straight jacket.
A# Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
B# Both (A) and (R) are correct
C# (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
D# (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

12# In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court discussed elaborately the question of onus of proof in cases in which all exercises of discretionary power is challenged ?
A# Narayan Vs. State of Maharashtra
B# Western India Watch Co. Vs. Its Workers
C# State of Orissa Vs. Dr. Binapani Dei
D# Union Carbide Corporation Vs. Union of India

13# Which of the following writs is issued by the High Court under Article 226 to inferior courts, tribunals or authorises to transmit to it the record of proceeding pending with them for scrutiny and, if necessary, for quashing the same ?
A# Habeas Corpus
B# Quo Warranto
C# Certiorari
D# Mandamus

14# A classic case on the question whether a particular administrative action infringes a fundamental right or not and, therefore, whether a petition under Article 32 to challenge it is maintainable or not in _______
A# Vishaka Vs. State of Rajasthan
B# Ujjam Bai Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
C# State of M.P. Vs. Keshav
D# Bimal Kumar Vs. State of Assam

15# According to Section 4(1) of the Lokpal and the Lokayukta Act the chairperson and members of Lokpal shall be appointed by the _________
A# President of India
B# Speaker of the House of People
C# Prime Minister of India
D# Chief Justice of India

16# According to Austin, _______ is a source of law.
A# Constitution
B# Morality
C# Sovereign
D# Society

17# According to ________, all laws exists for the sake of the liberty inherent in each individual, therefore the concept of personality must coincide with the idea of man.
A# Dias
B# Dicey
C# Salmond
D# Savigny

18# According to Savigny’s theory, possession is consisted of __________
A# Corpus possessions
B# Animus domini
C# Both Corpus possessions and Animus domini
D# None of the choices

19# Doctrine of precedent has constitutional status under
A# Article 131
B# Article 141
C# Article 143
D# None of the choices

20# The Supreme Court has advisory Jurisdiction under
A# Article 131
B# Article 136
C# Article 141
D# Article 143

21# The Supreme Court of India declared right to health in case.
A# P. Rathinram Vs. Union of India
B# Vishakh Vs. State of Rajasthan
C# Vincent Vs. Union of India
D# Bandhua Mukti Morcha Vs. Union of India

22# The author of ‘Law, Liberty and Morality’ :
A# Lord Devlin
B# Lord Lloyd
C# H.L.A. Hart
D# Lon Fuller

23# ‘A’ police officer, without warrant, apprehends ‘Z’, who has committed murder. Here, ‘A’ is not guilty of the offence of wrongful confinement, for he was bound by law to apprehends ‘Z’. This case falls under :
A# Murder
B# Culpable Homicide
C# Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
D# Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is bound by law to do it

24# ‘Z’ who is a citizen of India, commits a murder in Sri Lanka. He can be tried and punished of murder.
A# In any place in India in which he may be found
B# In Sri Lanka only where he is alleged to have committed the crime
C# Either In any place in India in which he may be found or in Sri Lanka only where he is alleged to have committed the crime
D# None of the choices

25# ‘A’ instigates to give false evidence ‘B’ in consequence of the instigation, commits the offence.
A# ‘A’ is guilty of abetting the offence
B# ‘A’ is liable to the same punishment as ‘B’
C# ‘A’ has committed no offence
D# ‘A’ is guilty of abetting the offence and is liable to the same punishment as ‘B’

26# Which of the following is not main ingredient of Section 120-A ?
A# There should be two or more persons
B# There should be an agreement between themselves
C# The agreement must be to do or cause to be done an illegal act or a legal act by illegal means
D# There should not be any agreement between them

27# ‘A’ meets ‘B’ on the road and asks him to part with his belonging on the instant threat of hurt to ‘B’ while ‘B’ delivers his purse to ‘A’. ‘A’ snatches away a golden chain from ‘B’s neck. Which of the following offences is committed by ‘A’ ?
A# Extortion
B# Robbery by Theft
C# Robbery by Extortion
D# Robbery by Theft as well as Robbery by extortion

28# Consider the following statements. To claim the benefit of provocation in reducing liability for murder the offender must prove that the :
(1) Provocation was sufficient in ordinary course of nature to cause a person of ordinary temper to lose his self-control
(2) Provocation was grave and sudden to justify the killer
(3) Provocation was so grave that it would stir a desire for revenge
(4) Sufficient time did not elapse so as cool down the passion
A# (1) alone is correct
B# (2) and (3) are correct
C# (1), (3) and (4) are correct
D# (1), (2) and (4) are correct

29# Imputation made in good faith by person for protection of his or other interests :
A# It is an offence of defamation
B# It is not an offence of defamation
C# It is not defamation but other offence under IPC
D# All of the choices are correct

30# Assertion (A) : Homicide is killing of a human being by a human being.
Reason (R) : Homicide is always unlawful.
A# Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B# Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C# (A) is true but (R) is false
D# (A) is false but (R) is true

31# The word ‘Environment’ has been defined under which of the Section of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 :
A# S. 2(a)
B# S. 2(e)
C# S. 2(d)
D# None of the choices

32# Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding forests and wildlife is covered under
A# Fundamental rights
B# Fundamental duties
C# Directive principles of state policy
D# Both directive principles of state policy and fundamental duties

33# Section 5A of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 provides for the Constitution of National Board For Wildlife. Who is the Chairperson of Board ?
A# Prime Minister
B# Minister-in-charge of forest and wildlife
C# Director of wildlife preservation
D# None of the choices

34# The main objective of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act is :
A# To provide for ensuring standards for emission from automobiles
B# To put restrictions on the establishment of certain industrial plants
C# To establish air laboratory for air quality standard
D# To provide for the prevention, control and abatement of air pollution

35# EIA (Environment Impact Assessment) is an important practical mechanism for advancing the transparency, participation and accountability advocated by which of the principle of Rio Declaration ?
A# Principle 10
B# Principle 3
C# Principle 12
D# Principle 7

36# The Wildlife (Protection) Act was enacted in the year :
A# 1986
B# 1974
C# 1994
D# 1972

37# Noise pollution has been inserted as Pollution in the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act in the year :
A# 1981
B# 1987
C# 1982
D# 2008

38# The Provisions of Environmental Protection in the Constitution were made under :
A# Article 5-A
B# Article 21-B
C# Article 39
D# Article 48A and Article 51A(9)

39# The trade negotiations under the Uruguay Round which resulted in the adoption of WTO Treaty were started in the year
A# 1986
B# 1990
C# 1992
D# 1994

40# Which of the following statements is correct ?
A# The ICJ exercises compulsory jurisdiction on all the member states of the United Nations
B# The ICJ exercises two types of jurisdictions contentious jurisdiction and advisory jurisdiction
C# The judgements of ICJ operates as precedent on all the states
D# The ICJ cannot decide a case ex aequo et bono under any circumstances

41# Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
A# The General Assembly consists of all the members of the United Nations
B# Each member may have up to 3 representatives in the General Assembly
C# Each member of the General Assembly has one vote
D# The General Assembly may establish such subsidiary organs as it deems necessary for the performance of its functions

42# The Savarkar’s Case (1911) primarily relates to
A# Statelessness
B# Domicile
C# Refugee
D# Extradition

43# For a state practice to become a customary rule of international law, it is necessary to establish the ‘psychological element.’ The ‘psychological element’ is known as
A# Pacta sunt servanda
B# Opinio juris sive necessitatis
C# Rebus sic stantibus
D# Jus gentium

44# Which of the following cases is not related to recognition ?
A# Tinoco Concessions Case
B# Bank of Ethiopia Vs. National Bank of Egypt and Ligouri
C# A. M. Luther Vs. Sagor and Co.
D# La Grand Case.

45# The detailed provision on the principle of sovereign equality has been laid down in
A# UN Charter
B# Declaration or Principles of International Law Concerning Friendly Relations and Cooperation among States in accordance with the Charter of the United Nations, 1970
C# Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948
D# ILC Draft Articles on State Responsibility, 2001

46# Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List I
(a) Son’s daughter
(b) Brother-sister
(c) Right of hizanat
(d) Jabr

List II
(1) Custody of minor children
(2) Sapinda relationship
(3) Guardianship in marriage
(4) Prohibited degree of relationship

Select the answer choice corresponding to the order (a) (b) (c) (d) :
A# (2) (4) (1) (3)
B# (4) (2) (3) (1)
C# (1) (2) (3) (4)
D# (3) (4) (2) (1)

47# A testamentary guardian under Guardians and Wards Act cannot be removed under Section 39 on one of the following grounds :
A# Abuse of trust
B# Continuous failure to perform the duty
C# Keeping the adverse interest
D# If he ceases to be a Hindu

48# Which of the following is not considered as a disability to act as a natural guardian under Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act ?
A# Disabilities arising from apostasy
B# Disabilities arising from civil death
C# Disabilities arising from minority
D# Disabilities arising from marriage

49# The object of dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act is :
A# To consolidate and clarify the provisions of Muslim law relating to suits for dissolution of marriage by women married under Muslim law
B# To remove doubts as to the effect of the renunciation of Islam by a married woman on her marriage tie
C# To consolidate and clarify the provisions of Muslim law relating to suits for dissolution of marriage by women married under Muslim law AND To remove doubts as to the effect of the renunciation of Islam by a married woman on her marriage tie
D# None of the choices

50# Which of the following signifies a husband’s comparison of wife with his mother or any other relatives in the prohibited degree ?
A# Ila
B# Zihar
C# Zina
D# Talaq

51# Where a married man contracts a bigamous marriage after the commencement of the Hindu Marriage Act
A# First wife can file a petition for divorce under Section 13 (1) (i)
B# Second marriage is void
C# Both, First wife can file a petition for divorce under Section 13 (1) (i) and Second marriage is void
D# None of the choices are correct

52# Where a minor has an undivided interest in joint family property and the property is under the management of an adult member of the family, then
A# A guardian needs to be appointed by the court in respect of such undivided interest
B# No guardian shall be appointed for the minor in respect of its undivided interest
C# A mother will work as the guardian of minor’s share
D# Minor’s interest shall be divided from the others

53# Which of the following is considered to be an approved form of marriage under the Old Hindu Law ?
A# Asura
B# Gandharva
C# Arsha
D# Paishacha

54# In which subject of law, the words ‘Human Rights’ took birth ?
A# Jurisprudence
B# Constitutional Law
C# Public International Law
D# Natural Law

55# Assertion (A) : Regional conventions on Human Rights too promotes Human Rights but are restricted to the region alone in their applicability.
Reason (R) : Universal conventions on Human Rights are applicable to all nation states without any discrimination.
A# Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A)
B# Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C# (A) is true but (R) is false
D# (A) is false but (R) is true

56# Arrange the following conventions in chronological order according to the year in which they are adopted.

International Convention on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR)
Convention on the Elimination of All forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW)
Convention on the Rights of Children (CRC)
Convention on the Rights of People with Disabilities (CRPD)
A# ICCPR, CEDAW, CRC, CRPD
B# ICCPR, CRPD, CRC, CEDAW
C# CEDAW, CRPD, ICCPR, CRC
D# CRPD, CEDAW, CRC, ICCPR

57# Who was the First Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission ?
A# J. A. S. Anand
B# J. J. S. Verma
C# J. K. G. Balakrishnan
D# J. Ranganath Mishra

58# Which sub-clause of the Human Rights Act defines the term ‘Human Rights’ in the Indian Human Rights Act ?
A# Section 2(A)
B# Section 2(D)
C# Section 2(C)
D# Section 2(E)

59# How many States Parties are the members of the Human Rights Council ?
A# 45
B# 46
C# 47
D# 49

60# In which year the ‘Right to Development’ Declaration was adopted by the U.N. ?
A# 1985
B# 1996
C# 1989
D# 1986

61# In which year was the National Commission for Minorities established by the Government of India ?
A# 1992
B# 1989
C# 1996
D# 1990

62# In a case the defendant’s servant had left a horse van unattended in a crowded street. A boy threw a stone on the horses and they bolted and started running without the driver causing danger to women and children on the road. The plaintiff, a police constable, who was on the duty inside a nearby police station saw that persons were in grave danger, ran out and stopped the horses and in doing so he was seriously injured. He brought an action against the defendant for damages.
In the light of above, case the facts of which is similar to Haynes Vs. Harward, which of the following statements will stand ?
A# Since plaintiff himself invited danger, he is not entitled for damages as per volenti not fit injuria
B# Since defendant has negligent, but does not have specific duty against plaintiff, he will not succeed
C# Since as per ‘rescue case’ principle the plaintiff is entitled for damages
D# None of the choices

63# ‘Negligence as a tort is the breach of a legal duty to take care which results in damages’. Who amongst the following has given These definition ?
A# Dr. Winfield
B# John Salmon
C# B. Alderson
D# Lord Wright

64# In which of the following cases, the right of action in tort can’t be extinguished ?
A# Release
B# Counter appeal
C# Acquiescence
D# Limitation

65# Consider the following statements :
(1) A circus company keeps wild animals and tames them. One of them escapes and causes injury to a spectator. Company is not liable.
(2) A person who brings and keeps any dangerous thing, keep it at his risk. If it escapes and causes damage, he is liable.
Of these statements :
A# Both (1) and (2) are true
B# Both (1) and (2) are false
C# (1) is true, but (2) is false
D# (1) is false, but (2) is true

66# Match the following lists and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

List I
(i) Ex turpi causa non oritur actio
(ii) Ubi jus ibi remedium
(iii) Salus populi supreme lex
(iv) Res ipsa loquitur

List II
(a) The welfare of the people is supreme law
(b) Things speaks for themselves
(c) No action arises from an immoral cause
(d) Where there is a right, there is remedy

Select the answer choice corresponding to the order (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A# (c) (a) (d) (b)
B# (b) (d) (a) (c)
C# (c) (d) (a) (b)
D# (b) (a) (d) (c)

67# Which amongst the following authorities is not constituted under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 ?
A# The State Consumer Protection Council
B# District Forum
C# The Central Consumer Protection Council
D# The Consumer Protection Awareness Council

68# Which amongst the following matters related to subject given below does not fall with the purview of the Consumer Protection Act ?
A# Cases under SARFAESI Act
B# Cases involving complex questions of law and facts
C# Matters relating to Stamp and Registration Act
D# All of the choices

69# Which section of the Partnership Act prescribes that a notice to the partner is deemed to be a notice to the partnership firm ?
A# Section 26
B# Section 24
C# Section 25
D# Section 23

70# The payment of price and delivery of goods are not concurrent conditions in which of the following contract of sale ?
A# A sale on credit
B# C.I.F. (cost, insurance and freight) contracts
C# Both A sale on credit and C.I.F. (cost, insurance and freight) contracts
D# None of the choices

71# Negotiability and assignability is connected with :
A# Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
B# Transfer of Properties Act, 1908
C# Sale of Goods Act, 1930
D# Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 and Transfer of Properties Act, 1908

72# The doctrine of ‘Ultra Vires’ related to :
A# Vested powers included in the object clause
B# Implied powers included in the object clause
C# Both, Vested powers included in the object clause and Implied powers included in the object clause
D# None of the choices

73# Doctrine of Constructive Notice Provident under 399 of the Companies Act means :
A# Public documents content knowledge
B# Any person acquaintance with the content of a document
C# Any person dealing with the company is presumed to have read these documents and understood them in their true perspective
D# Any person having the knowledge through reading the documents relating to an institution

74# Payment in due cause is provided in of the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881.
A# Section 9
B# Section 10
C# Section 11
D# Section 12

75# Amended provisions of Section 69 of the Partnership Act under Maharashtra Amendment Act, 1984 is in operation.
A# Prospective
B# Retrospective
C# Not prospective
D# Not retrospective


The official answer key for this question paper, along with other all recent previous papers and 100 Mock tests / model papers with unlimited practice are included in our MH SET Law Online Practice Pack.

MH SET Maharashtra SET Law - 100 Mock Tests & Model Papers Series

  • Based on latest Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Law Paper II Syllabus
  • Law Subjects Overview Material covering important topics and concepts - 650 page PDF Book
  • 50 Full Length Mock Tests - New Pattern Paper II, with 100 questions each
  • 50 Mini Practice Mock tests - with 25 questions each
  • Unlimited Practice - New Questions in every mock test with every attempt
  • Answer choices of all questions shuffled randomly for better practice
  • Database of over 9500 MCQs covering the entire syllabus
  • Includes new comprehension based questions
  • Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
  • Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers and Desktops
Authentic Feedback from previous exam users :

"Just wanted to let you know that I have cleared JRF with 99.99th percentile. Thank you for all your help and support that made it possible. " - Kanchan Yadav

"Thank you so much for the UGC NET test series. I finally qualified the exam. It was possible because of the mock test series provided by your team." - Robin Jaiswal

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