MH-SET Previous Question Paper Law 2015 P-III Mock Tests

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This is the full previous question paper from MH-SET 2015 Paper III Law Subject, i.e. the Maharashtra State Eligibility Test examination conducted in 2015 for eligibility for Assistant Professor posts in Maharashtra & Goa.

The official answer key for this question paper, along with other all recent previous papers and 100 Mock tests / model papers with unlimited practice are included in our online MHSET Law Online Practice Pack.

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1# The word ‘Union’ was deliberately selected by the Drafting Committees of the Constituent Assembly to indicate :
A# To show unity of the states
B# That the Indian Union is not the result of an agreement by the states
C# That the Indian Union is the result of an agreement by the states
D# That the Indian System there is unity and integrity

2# Which among the following cases relates to the recognition and aid to rights of minority institution as enshrined under the Indian Constitution ?
A# T.M. Pai Foundation Vs. State of Karnataka
B# T.M. Pandey Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh
C# The State of Rajasthan Vs. Excel Wear
D# Kesavananda Bharati Vs. Union of India

3# The Supreme Court has observed that, ‘Religion is certainly a matter of faith with individuals or communities and it is not necessarily theistic. There are well known religions in India like Buddhism and Jainism which do not believe in God or in any intelligent cause.’ This observation was made in the case of
A# Bijoe Emmanuel Vs. State of Kerala
B# Commissioner HRE Madras Vs. Sri Lakshmindra
C# Ramesh Thaper Vs. State of Kerala
D# Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India

4# Which of the following is not directive principle as enshrined under the Indian Constitution ?
A# Free legal aid
B# Right to work
C# Right to Living Wage
D# Right to Life and Liberty

5# ‘The power to destroy is not a power to amend. The constitution confers only a limited power on parliament to amend the Constitution. Parliament cannot therefore by exercising that limited power enlarge that very power into an absolute power.’ This observed by the Supreme Court in the case of
A# Indira Nehru Gandhi Vs. Raj Narain (1975)
B# Raghunath Rao Vs. Union of India (1993)
C# Minerva Mills Ltd. Vs. Union of India (1980)
D# L.C. Golak Nath Vs. State of Punjab (1967)

6# The Election Commission consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and such other Election Commissioners. The Election Commissioners are appointed by :
A# President subject to the provisions of the law enacted by the Parliament
B# President at his discretion
C# Prime Minister of India
D# Prime Minister with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers

7# The President may refer any matter to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion under Article 143(1) of the Constitution, when :
A# It appears to the President that a question of law or fact, is of such public importance, that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court
B# When grave and emergency situation has arisen
C# When there is threat to the country
D# When it is advised by the Council of Ministers

8# Recent Constitutional Amendment provides for establishment of National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) which consists of :
A# President of India
B# Two eminent persons
C# Prime Minister of India
D# Union Home Minister

9# Which of the following is the important reason for the evolution of administrative law.
A# Emergence of the concept of nationalism
B# Emergence of welfare state
C# Emergence of Globalization
D# Emergence of Constitutional system of governance based on written Constitution

10# Which of the following is a case related to judicial review of discretionary power ?
A# Ashby Vs. Whit
B# Associated Provincial Picture Hour Vs. Wednesbury Corporation
C# Ridge Vs. Baldwin
D# A.G. of Hong Kong Vs. Reid

11# Which of the following is the writ meant for protecting the personal liberty of the individual ?
A# Prohibition
B# Mandamus
C# Habeas Corpus
D# Certiorari

12# Institutions established in India for preventing a maladministration and corruption are :
A# Lokpal, Lok Ayukta and Lok Adalat
B# Lokpal and Lok Ayukta
C# Lokpal and Lok Adalat
D# Lokpal only

13# Which of the following are the components of natural justice ?
A# Fair hearing, rule against bias and reasoned decision
B# Fair hearing and rule against bias only
C# Fair hearing and reasoned decision only
D# Rule against bias and reasoned decision only

14# Which of the following is a ground for judicial review of administrative action, but not a ground for judicial review of legislation ?
A# Violation of fundamental rights
B# Violation of express Provision of the Constitution
C# Violation of fundamental rights and express provisions of the Constitution
D# Malafide

15# The decision Kraipak Vs. Union of India is related to :
A# Fair hearing
B# Pecuniary bias
C# Personal bias
D# Bias related to subject matter

16# Match the following :

List I :
(1) Rule Making
(2) Rule Decision
(3) Rule application
(4) Ministerial

List II :
(a) Quasi-Judicial
(b) Quasi-Legislative
(c) Definitive Duty
(d) Administrative
Select the answer choice that corresponds to the order (1), (2), (3), (4)
A# (c) (a) (b) (d)
B# (b) (c) (d) (a)
C# (b) (a) (d) (c)
D# (a) (b) (c) (d)

17# Which of the following does not conform to the Principle Rule of Law ?
A# No person should be made to suffer
B# All things should be done according to law and not according to whim
C# Absence of Arbitrary power
D# Law is supreme and no one above law

18# Who defined ‘Delegated Legislation’ as ‘that which proceeds from any authority other than the sovereign power and is therefore dependent for its continued existence and validity on some superior or supreme authority.’
A# Austin
B# Jennings
C# Dicey
D# Salmond

19# Assertion (A) : A precedent is purely constitute and in no degree abrogative.
Reason (R) : A judicial decision can make a law but cannot alter it.
A# Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B# Both (A) and (R) are true. But (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C# (A) is correct and (R) is wrong
D# (A) is wrong and (R) is correct

20# Who said wrongs are divisible into public and private wrongs on the lines of public and private rights ?
A# Blackstone
B# C.J. Fuller
C# Winfield
D# A.V. Dicey

21# Under which Section of the Indian Penal Code selling goods marked with counterfeit trademark or property mark constitutes an offence against property ?
A# Section 487
B# Section 489
C# Section 486
D# Section 491

22# Who authored the book ‘A Theory of Justice’ ?
A# Amartya Sen
B# Rawls
C# P.N. Bakshi
D# Benjamin Cardozo

23# Which of the following categories of Sections under Indian Penal Code need more than one person to constitute the offence and the offence cannot be committed by individual only ?
A# Section 403, Section 405, Section 511
B# Section 302, Section 376, Section 377
C# Section 34, Section 120B, Section 376D, Section 391
D# Section 34, Section 120B, Section 292, Section 307

24# ‘A’, a flat-owner, lends his house to a Police Inspector ‘B’. ‘B’ while investigating a criminal case takes an accused to his flat for the purpose of torturing him illegally and to get a clue about case. He informs ‘A’ about the use of his flat for torturing a suspected criminal illegally, but assures him that it is a routine process of his department.
In the present case, which of the following statements is correct ?
A# ‘A’ was not guilty of abetment as he is not having any control on ‘B’.
B# ‘A’ was guilty of abetment, only if he assists ‘B’ in torturing.
C# ‘A’ was not guilty of any offence because he had not tender his consent.
D# ‘A’ was guilty of abetment

25# In which of the following cases Supreme Court held that S. 377 of IPC does not suffer from the vice of unconstitutionality and declares consensual sexual acts of adult in private not violative of Articles 14, 15 and 21 of the constitution:
A# Naz Foundation Vs. Union of India
B# Suresh Kumar Koushal Vs. Naz Foundation AIR 2014 SC 563
C# Brother John Antony Vs. State of Tamil Nadu (1992) Cr. LJ 1352
D# Omkar Prasad Verma Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh AIR 2007 SC 1381

26# In order to constitute the offence of ‘Mischief’ u/s 425 of IPC, which one of the ingredients is required.
A# Knowledge and possession of property goods necessary
B# Dishonest misappropriation and converting the property for one’s own use
C# Destruction of the property belonging to someone else
D# Dishonestly deceiving any person and concealment of facts is necessary

27# In which one of the following cases has the criminal breach of trust been committed ?
A# ‘A’ paid Rs. 10,000 to a contractor for renovation of his old house within three months. But contractor neither renovated the house nor returned the money.
B# ‘A’ and ‘B’ are travelling in a train on same berth. When ‘A’ was sleeping ‘B’ took away all the bags and baggage and stepped out the train without the knowledge of ‘A’.
C# A postmaster received the money from the depositor but did not return the same at maturity in their post office account.
D# ‘A’ and ‘B’, two brothers, went to Mumbai for some work, while returning back, ‘B’ secretly takes a purse of ‘A’ having Rs. 5,000 from his bag.

28# Which one of the following ingredients is necessary for an offence of ‘Extortion’ to be constituted ?
A# Taking away the movable property without the knowledge and without consent of owner
B# Taking away the movable property by amounting fear and injury
C# Taking away the movable property by putting that person in fear of instant death or instant hurt
D# Taking away the movable property by using any deadly weapon or by causing grievous hurt or attempting to cause death

29# ‘A’ with an intention of causing death of ‘B’ did not provide him food and keep him at solitary place. Which one of the statements is correct with respect to the act of ‘A’ ?
A# ‘A’s act is merely a negligence as he is not providing food
B# ‘A’s act is not amount to murder as he is not using any weapon or instrument
C# ‘A’s act amounts to attempt to commit murder
D# ‘A’s act only amounts to inflict harm to ‘B’ which amounts to causing grievous hurt, harassment and illegal torture

30# Which one of the following incidences is not covered by any of the exceptions of S.499 of IPC ?
A# Remark about the public conduct of public servant
B# Opinion about the conduct of any person touching any public question
C# Expressing opinion on merit of case decided by court of conduct of witnesses and other concerned
D# Indirect imputation about the caste and calling of any person

31# In which year has the Stockholm Conference on Environment taken place ?
A# 1984
B# 1972
C# 1975
D# 1990

32# What is the expansion of GEMS ?
A# Global Environment Monitoring System
B# Global Environment Mechanic System
C# Global Environment Master System
D# Systematic Management of Global Environment

33# In which year was Biological Diversity Act enacted by India ?
A# 2000
B# 2001
C# 2002
D# 2004

34# Whose Report has brought the concept of ‘Sustainable development’ was the main focus of Environmental Law ?
A# Nardu Plata Report
B# Harlem Brundtland Report
C# Arvind de Pareto Report
D# Clinton Report

35# In which year was the Department of Environment converted as Ministry of Environment and Forests ?
A# 1980
B# 1985
C# 1990
D# 1987

36# The problem of the pollution of river Ganga by the inaction of the municipalities was brought to light in which of the following cases ?
A# Indian Council for Environment Legal Action Vs. Union of India
B# A.P. Pollution Control Board Vs. M.V. Nayudu
C# S. Jagannath Vs. Union of India
D# M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India

37# The term Environmental Pollution has been defined under which Section of the Environmental Protection Act, 1986 ?
A# 2C
B# 2B
C# 2D
D# 2A

38# Which movement laid the foundation for the Protection and Preservation of Environment in India ?
A# Chilka Lake Movement
B# Ganga Cleaning Movement
C# Bhopal Gas Victims Movement
D# Chipko Movement

39# Assertion (A) : Supporters of realist theories argue that the real importance of international law lies in the validity of its claim to be law. Reason (R) : That it is accepted as a major influence on international politics is enough to justify the existence of International law.
A# (A) is correct, (R) is wrong
B# (A) is wrong, (R) is correct
C# (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D# (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

40# The rise of decolonisation process in the form of the ‘clean state’ Principles refers to :
A# New states acquiring redefined territory
B# De facto states which are yet to be recognized by the international community
C# New states acquiring sovereignty free from encumbrances created by the predecessor sovereign
D# All states recognized by the International Community

41# According to British practice, condition precedent to grant De Jure recognition is :
A# A reasonable assurance of stability and permanence
B# The government should command the general support of the population
C# It should be able and willing to fulfil the international obligations
D# All of the choices

42# Columbia Vs. Peru Case deals with :
A# Asylum
B# Extradition
C# Innocent passage
D# Continental shelf

43# In which one of the following cases did the ICJ refrain from giving its Final Judgement ?
A# Nuclear tests case
B# Corfu Channel case
C# Right of passage case
D# Frontier Dispute case

44# A member of the UN can be suspended from the exercise of the rights and privileges of membership by the :
A# General Assembly
B# Security Council
C# General Assembly on the recommendations of Security Council
D# Security Council on the recommendations of General Assembly

45# Which is the second most important function of WTO ?
A# Implementation of the WTO agreement
B# Negotiating a dispute with parties
C# Interpreting the Legal Rules and Regulations
D# Overseeing all trade disputes

46# As per Section ______, any marriage solemnised, whether before or after the commencement of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, shall be voidable and may be annulled by a decree of nullity, inter alia, on the ground that the marriage has not been consummated owing to the impotence of the respondent ?
A# 12(1) (a)
B# 12(1) (b)
C# 12(1) (c)
D# 12(1) (d)

47# In which of the following cases, the Apex Court held that it is desirable that ‘All marriages should be compulsorily, registered in the State where they are solemnized ?
A# S. Nagalingam Vs. Sivagani
B# Seema Vs. Ashwin Kumar
C# Shanti Dev Berm a Vs. K.P. Devi
D# Vishnu Prakash Vs. Sheela Devi

48# Assertion (A) : Break down of marriage as such is not a ground for divorce.
Reason (R) : It may result into an easy way of dissolution of marriage and shall result into instability in the society.
A# Both (A) and (R) are correct
B# (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
C# Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
D# (R) is correct but (A) is wrong

49# Match the List-I with List-II using the codes given below :

List-I
(a) Voidable Marriages
(b) Void Marriages
(c) Restitution of Conjugal Rights
(d) Divorce

List-II
(i) Section 9
(ii) Section 13
(iii) Section 12
(iv) Section 11

Selection the answer choice that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
A# (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
B# (iv) (iii)
C# (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
D# (iii) iii) (i) (iv)

50# In case of an adoption of a male by a Hindu female, the adoptive mother must be at least
A# Eighteen years older than the person to be adopted
B# Twenty-one years older than the person to be adopted
C# Sixteen years older than the person to be adopted
D# Twelve years older than the person to be adopted

51# Under the Sunni Law, failing father, the guardian of the minor’s property are
(I) The father’s father
(II) The father’s executor
(III)The paternal grandfather’s executor.
The correct order of priority is :
A# (I) (II) (III)
B# (II) (I) (III)
C# (III) (II) (I)
D# (III) (I) (II)

52# In ________, the Supreme Court held that Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is not violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India.
A# Sarla Mudgal Vs. Union of India
B# Bimla Devi Vs. Ramesh Kumar
C# Saroj Rani Vs. Sudarshan Kumar
D# T. Sareetha Vs. Venkat Subbaih

53# Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : The Supreme Court of India in Mohd. Ahmed Khan Vs. Shah Bano Begum has regretted that Article 44 of the Constitution of India has remained a ‘dead letter’ as there is ‘no evidence of any official activity for framing a common civil code for the country.’ Reason (R) : As uniform civil code has still remained a distant dream the Apex Court has continued to emphasise in John Vallamattom Vs. Union of India that a common civil code will help the cause of National integration by removing the contradictions based on ideologies. Select the answer choice corresponding to the order (a) (b) (c) (d) :
A# Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanatory of (A)
B# Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is a correct explanatory of (A)
C# (A) is true but (R) is false
D# (A) is false but (R) is true

54# The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child came into force in the year :
A# 1969
B# 1979
C# 1989
D# 1959

55# The United Nations Convention against Torture was adopted by the United Nations in the year :
A# 2003
B# 1984
C# 1966
D# 2006

56# Who was the first Chairperson of the United Nations Commission on Human Rights ?
A# John Humphrey
B# Henry Dunant
C# Mrs. Eleanor Roosevelt
D# Kofi Annan

57# Which of the following Supreme Court decisions dealt with right against solitary confinement ?
A# Govind Vs. State of MP
B# Sunil Batra Vs. Delhi Administration
C# Prem Shankar Shukla Vs. Delhi Administration
D# Charles Shobhraj Vs. Suptd., Central Jail

58# Upon which of the following cases did the Supreme Court place reliance on CEDAW and proceeded to lay down guidelines ?
A# Vineet Narain Case
B# D.K. Basu
C# Vishaka Case
D# Hussainara Khatoon’s case

59# The Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission or its members shall be removed from his office only by order of the :
A# President
B# Prime Minister
C# Chief Justice of India
D# Chief Justice of any High Court

60# The International Convention on the Rights of the Persons with Disabilities (CPRD) was adopted by the United Nations in the year :
A# 2003
B# 1989
C# 1966
D# 2006

61# Who was the first Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission of India ?
A# Justice A.S. Anand
B# Justice Rangnath Misra
C# Justice A.M. Ahmadi
D# Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer

62# Tort is defined as a civil wrong for which remedy is an action for :
A# Unliquidated damages
B# Liquidated damages
C# Damages of all kinds
D# Liquidated and unliquidated damages

63# The maxim resipsa loquitur is a rule of :
A# Evidence
B# Criminal law
C# Rebuttal of evidence
D# Vicarious liability

64# Mental condition of the wrong doer at the time of wrong doing :
A# Relevant in all torts
B# Relevant to torts based on faculties
C# Relevant to torts based on strict liability
D# not relevant in tortious liability

65# Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select correct answer :
Assertion (A) : No action lies for mere damage caused by some act which does not violate any legal right.
Reason (R) : An action lies for interference with another’s legal private right even where it causes no actual damage.
A# (A) is true but (R) is false
B# (A) is false but (R) is true
C# Both (A) and (R) are true
D# Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

66# Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : The mental element in defamation is not required in a civil action.
Reason (R) : The mental element is not mentioned in Indian Penal Code.
A# Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B# Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C# (A) is true but (R) is false
D# (A) is false but (R) is correct

67# Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

List-I (Legal Maxims)
(a) Ubi jus ibi remedium
(b) Scienti non fit injuria
(c) Damnum sine injuria
(d) Injuria sine damnum

List-II (Meaning of Maxims)
(i) Infringement of private legal right without damage or loss
(ii) Where there is a right, there is remedy
(iii) Harm suffered without knowledge
(iv) Damage or loss without infringement of legal right

Select the option that corresponds to the order (a) (b) (c) (d)
A# (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
B# (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C# (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
D# (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

68# In nuisance a defendant is liable to unusually sensitive plaintiff :
A# Only in personal injury cases
B# Only in property injury cases
C# Both in property injury and personal injury cases
D# Not liable

69# Partnership requires :
A# A written agreement
B# An oral agreement
C# Could be inferred from the conduct of parties
D# All of the choices are correct

70# In the Partnership Act, 1932, which of the following partners are not liable in relation to the firm ?
A# Partner by holding out
B# Working partner
C# Sub partner
D# Partner by estoppel

71# A stipulation in a contract of sale of goods whose violation by seller gives a right of recession to buyer is called :
A# Guarantee
B# Warranty
C# Condition
D# Negotiation

72# Which one of the following is not a document of title to the goods ?
A# Railway receipt
B# Wharfingers certificate
C# Warehouse keeping certificate
D# Carriage of goods

73# Under the Negotiable Instrument Act, a Bill drawn in favour of a minor is :
A# Void
B# Valid but not negotiable
C# Valid
D# Voidable

74# In the Companies Act, 2013 the maximum no. of members of Private Ltd. Company has been changed from 50 to :
A# 75
B# 100
C# 125
D# 200

75# Assertion (A) : Every public company shall have at least three and every private company at least two directors.
Reason (R) : Directors are trustees for the company and not for the individual shareholders.
A# (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not an explanation for (A)
B# (A) and (R) are true and (R) is an explanation for (A)
C# (A) is true but (R) is false
D# (R) is true but (A) is false

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The official answer key for this question paper, along with other all recent previous papers and 100 Mock tests / model papers with unlimited practice are included in our MH SET Law Online Practice Pack.

Authentic Feedback from previous exam users :

"Just wanted to let you know that I have cleared JRF with 99.99th percentile. Thank you for all your help and support that made it possible. " - Kanchan Yadav

"Thank you so much for the UGC NET test series. I finally qualified the exam. It was possible because of the mock test series provided by your team." - Robin Jaiswal

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