MH-SET Previous Question Paper Law 2014 P-III Mock Tests

MH-SET Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Previous Question Paper Law 2014 P III Mock Test Series Model Papers

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This is the full previous question paper from MH-SET 2014 Paper III Law Subject, i.e. the Maharashtra State Eligibility Test examination conducted in 2014 for eligibility for Assistant Professor posts in Maharashtra & Goa.

The official answer key for this question paper, along with other all recent previous papers and 100 Mock tests / model papers with unlimited practice are included in our online MHSET Law Online Practice Pack.


1# In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India has laid down the test of ‘instrumentality or agency of the government’ as to the interpretation of definition of state under Article 12 of the Constitution of India ?
A# Sukhdev Singh Vs Bhagatram Sardar Singh Raghuvanshi (1975)
B# Sabhajit Tewary Vs Union of India (1975)
C# Smt. Ujjam Bai Vs State of Uttar Pradesh (1962)
D# Ramanna Dayaram Shetty Vs International Airport Authority of India (1979)

2# In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India held that the National Awards do not amount to ‘titles’ within the meaning of Article 18(1) and they should not be used as suffixes or prefixes ?
A# M.R. Balaji Vs State of Mysore (1963)
B# Balaji Raghavan Vs Union of India (1996)
C# Common Cause a Registered Society Vs Union of India (1987)
D# People’s Union for Democratic Rights Vs Union of India (1982)

3# In ______ the Supreme Court of India held right to livelihood as a fundamental right ?
A# Hussainara Khatoon Vs State of Bihar-I (1979)
B# Prem Shankar Shukla Vs Delhi Administration (1980)
C# Olga Tellis V; Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985)
D# Sheela Barse Vs State of Maharashtra (1983)

4# Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India declared the Supreme Court as a court of record ?
A# Article 131
B# Article 129
C# Article 143
D# Article 134

5# The doctrine of occupied field is related to the interpretation of the provisions of :
A# Article 245 of the Constitution of India
B# Article 254 of the Constitution of India
C# Article 246 of the Constitution of India
D# Article 13 of the Constitution of India

6# Which Amendment to the Preamble of the Constitution of India substituted the words ‘SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC’ for the words ‘SOVEREIGN DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC’ ?
A# 7th Amendment to the Constitution of India
B# 25th Amendment to the Constitution of India
C# 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India
D# 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India

7# Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for right to work ?
A# Article 40
B# Article 41
C# Article 42
D# Article 43

8# A person must be citizen of India and must not be less than _______ years of age to become member of Rajya Sabha.
A# 20
B# 25
C# 30
D# 35

9# Who, among the following, coined the term ‘Rule of Law’ ?
A# Lowell
B# W.F. Willoughby
C# H. Finer
D# A.V. Dicey

10# Which of the following is not a part of the principles of natural justice ?
A# Nemo judex in causa sua
B# Audi alteram partem
C# Doctrine of jan sunwais
D# Justice should not only be done but seen to have been done

11# The Supreme Court of India has widened its scope of giving relief under writ of habeas corpus from unlawful detention to lawful detention under inhuman and cruel conditions in which of the following decisions ?
A# Sunil Batra II
B# A.K. Ashoka VS. Jail Administration
C# In re : An Advocate
D# Abdul Latiff VS. Commissioner

12# The Central Vigilance Commission was constituted as a result of the recommendation of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption which is also known as :
A# Santhanam Committee
B# Jaganath Committee
C# Kejariwal Committee
D# Romanathan Committee

13# While laying the judicial policy regarding administrative discretion in _______ the Supreme Court of India ruled that the rule of law means that decision should be made by the application of known principles and rules and in general, such decision should be predictable and the citizen should know where he is :
A# West Bengal Vs Shivanand Pathak
B# P.K. Ghosh Vs J.G. Rajput
C# Sarwan Singh Vs Union of India
D# Jaisinghani Vs Union of India

14# Assertion (A) : Judicial review is unfettered and absolute under the Indian Legal System.
Reason (R) : In spite of ouster clause in the statute a petition can be filed in High Courts and the Supreme Court.
A# Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B# Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C# (A) is true but (R) is false
D# (A) is false but (R) is true

15# The Supreme Court emphasized on the content and reach of the great equalising principle enunciated in Article 14, one shall not violate its activist magnitude was held in _______
A# Maneka Gandhi Vs UOI
B# Javed Vs State of Haryana
C# Rameshwar Prasad Vs State of Bihar
D# Union Carbide Vs UOI

16# With reference to Right of Privacy in context of doctor-patient relation the Supreme Court gave a trend setting judgement in the following decision :
A# Mrs. Zeto Vs Treta Hospital
B# People’s union for Civil Liberties Vs UOI
C# Dr. Ramesh Thapper Vs State of Madras
D# Mr. X Vs Hospital ‘Z’

17# Right to Education was a fundamental right under Art, 21 and that it directly flows from the right to life was the verdict in _______
A# Unni Krishnan Vs State of A.P.
B# Vishakha Vs State of Rajasthan
C# Indira Gandhi Vs Raj Narayan
D# Xavier’s College Vs State of M.P.

18# The observation that the constitution was founded on the bed rock of balance between Part III and Part IV was pronounced in _______
A# Sunil Batra Vs Union of India
B# Shankari Prasad Vs UOI
C# Minerva Mills Vs UOI
D# State of Madras Vs Champakam Dorairajan

19# Lord Devlin in his book on ‘Enforcement of Morals’ takes his start from the report of _______
A# Wolfenden Report
B# HLA Hart Report
C# Cheshire Law Report
D# Cross and John’s Report

20# Corporate Soul and Corporate Aggregate are the concepts to determine the legal aspect relating to ________
A# Personality
B# Corporate Governance
C# Ownership of shares
D# Values of CSR

21# Bracket Theory amounts to putting a bracket round the members in order to treat them as unit. This statement refers to legal ________
A# Personality of a Corporation
B# Personality of a Human being
C# Hierarchy of Institutions of Court
D# Immunities granted to judges and diplomats

22# Function of law is to deal with morals in public interest. The Indian Penal Code as well as the Constitution of India deals with this in the following sections :
A# Section 293 IPC and Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitutional Law
B# Section 40 IPC and Article 13 of the Constitutional Law
C# Section 307 of IPC and Article 12 of the Constitutional Law
D# Section 107 of IPC and Article 134 of the Constitutional Law

23# Assertion (A) : The word dishonestly is not synonymous with fraudulently.
Reason (R) : Deception is essential for fraud but not for dishonestly and wrongful gain or wrongful loss of property is necessary for dishonestly but not for fraud.
A# (A) is true but (R) is false
B# (A) is false but (R) is true
C# Both (A) and (R) are true
D# Both (A) and (R) are false

24# Assertion (A) : The word mens rea has nowhere been used or defined in the IPC.
Reason (R) : It is just a conception implied by Courts in every criminal act with no corresponding expression in the IPC.
A# (A) is true but (R) is false
B# (A) is false but (R) is true
C# Both (A) and (R) are true
D# Both (A) and (R) are false

25# ‘Good faith’ is established on the basis of ________
A# Due care and attention
B# Act of Triviality
C# Presumptions based on facts of each case
D# The extent of ‘Principle of harm caused’

26# The first draft of the Indian Penal Code was prepared by ________
A# First Law Commission
B# Tenth Law Commission
C# By the British Parliament
D# The Committee headed by Lord Cornwallis in 1856

27# Abducting a woman to compel her to marry is an offence under Section ________
A# 366
B# 266
C# 272 read with 312
D# 359-A

28# When is attempt punishable ?
A# With guilty mind do an act but fail
B# With no guilty mind and no intention to harm a person
C# An act done in good faith
D# An act of preparation

29# Thug is a person habitually associated with other/others for the purpose of committing the offence of _______
A# Robbery and dacoity
B# Robbery with murder
C# Theft and cheating
D# Robbery or child stealing

30# Intentional abandonment of child under twelve years by the parents is punishable under the following Section :
A# Section 320
B# Section 308
C# Section 317
D# Section 326

31# Select the appropriate answer : The Auto-fuel Policy was evolved after which committee’s recommendation ?
A# Dr. R. A. Mashelkar
B# Justice P.N. Bhagwati
C# Dr. A. Gnanam
D# Dr. Arunab Ghose

32# The silent valley case is concerned with which type of project in the Kerala State ?
A# Nuclear power project
B# Coal power project
C# Hydroelectric project
D# Water Therapy project

33# After the judgement of the Supreme Court of India in M.C. Mehta Vs Union of India what type of Gas was introduced in India ?
A# Petroleum Liquid Gas
B# Compressed Natural Gas
C# Coal base Liquid Gas
D# Intelligent Quotient Gas

34# In which case the Supreme Court extended the retrospective application of the Forests Act, 1980 ?
A# Ambia Quarry Works Vs State of Gujarat
B# State of HP Vs Ganesh Wood Products
C# Upendra Jha Vs State of Bihar
D# State of Bihar Vs Banshi Ram

35# Agenda 21 is form part of which declaration of International Environmental Law ?
A# Havana Declaration
B# Stockholm Declaration
C# Rio Declaration
D# Vancouver Declaration

36# In which case the doctrine of public trust was advocated by the Apex Court ?
A# M.C. Mehta Vs Kamal Nath
B# M.C. Mehta Vs Union of India
C# M.C. Mehta Vs State of Tamil Nadu
D# Shriram Fertilizers Vs M.C. Mehta

37# Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide and hydrocarbons etc. constitute part of which type of pollution ?
A# Combustion process
B# Industrial process
C# Agricultural process
D# Air scavenging process

38# The expression ‘Natural environment’ is part of which Article of the Constitution of India ?
A# Article 48 A
B# Article 51 A
C# Article 51 A (g)
D# Article 51 A (c)

39# Which author of International Law expounded the traditional definition of International Law ?
A# J.G. Strake
B# Ian Brownlie
C# J.L. Brierley
D# Hans Kelsen

40# Assertion (A) : Extradition is a concept coupled with political aspects.
Reason (R) : Law of Extradition is a Dual Law.
A# Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B# Both (A) and (R) are not correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C# Both (A) and (R) are true
D# Both (A) and (R) are not correct

41# How many Judges are there in the ICJ ?
A# 15
B# 17
C# 18
D# 19

42# UNICTRAL stands for :
A# United Nations Inter Commission for Trade Disputes
B# United Nations Commission for International Trade Law
C# United Commission for International Trade Disputes Law
D# United Nations Collective International Trade Law

43# How many members are elected to the ECOSOC from the total strength of General Assembly ?
A# Fifty-six
B# Fifty-four
C# Fifty-seven
D# Fifty-five

44# What does the term extra-territorial refers to in International Law ?
A# Asylum granted to terrorists
B# Asylum granted to political offenders
C# Asylum granted outside the territory of a state
D# Asylum granted in the colony by a state

45# With which author the term ‘International Law’ is associated ?
A# Bentham
B# Hugo Grotius
C# Oppenheim
D# J.G. Strake

46# In which year the convention on the Reduction of statelessness was adopted ?
A# 1964
B# 1965
C# 1962
D# 1961

47# The present position under the Hindu Marriage Act and the Special Marriage Act is not as stated in one of the following statements :
A# Children of un-annulled voidable marriage are legitimate in the same way as children of an otherwise valid marriage are
B# Children of annulled voidable and void marriage (whether declared void or not) are legitimate but they will inherit the property of their parents alone and of none else
C# If the marriage is void or voidable under any other provision of the law, except Sections 11 and 12, the children will be illegitimate. Such a case will be, for instance, when marriage is void for lack of performance of valid ceremonies.
D# Such children can inherit the separate property of their father under Section 8, Hindu Succession Act, and also lay claim on the coparcenary interest of the father

48# Assertion (A) : If at the time of marriage either party has a spouse living under Hindus Law, it will be one of the grounds for declaring the marriage void.
Reason (R) : In the case of (A) the second marriage will be void only, if the first marriage is valid.
A# Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B# Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C# (A) is true but (R) is false
D# (A) is false but (R) is true

49# Zihar is a form of divorce where :
A# A husband compares his wife with his real sister
B# A husband compares his wife with his sister-in-law
C# A husband compares his wife with his mother
D# A husband compares his wife with his real sister OR his sister-in-law

50# The Supreme Court considered the question as to the true theory of adoption in which of the following cases ?
A# B.S. Agalawe Vs P.M. Agalawe, AIR 1988 SC 845
B# Vasant Vs Dattu, AIR 1987 SC 398
C# Chandrasekhara Vs Kulandaivelu, AIR 1963 SC 185
D# Madhusudan Vs Chandrika, AIR 1975 MP 1974

51# Which one of the following statements is incorrect ? Guardian under Section 4(b) of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, inter alia, includes ______
A# a natural guardian
B# a guardian appointed by the will of the minor’s father or mother
C# a guardian appointed or declared by a court
D# a person empowered to act as such under any law except enactment relating to any Court of Wards

52# Which one of the following Sections under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 provides for maintenance of widowed daughter- in-law ?
A# Section 16
B# Section 17
C# Section 18
D# Section 19

53# In _______, the Supreme Court, rejecting the prayer for the enactment of a Common Civil Code, ruled that the issue was for the legislature to deal with.
A# Ahmedabad Women Action Group (AWAG) Vs U.O.I.
B# Unni Krishnan Vs State of A.P.
C# Sukhnandan Thakur Vs State of Bihar
D# Centre for Legal Research Vs State of Kerala

54# Restitution of conjugal rights is a remedy having its genesis under _______ law.
A# Indian
B# English
C# Jewish
D# American

55# The International Day for the Elimination of violence against women is celebrated on :
A# 25th November
B# 28th November
C# 30th November
D# 10th December

56# Which one of the following instruments provides for the establishment of Human Rights Committee ?
A# United Nations Charter
B# Universal Declaration of Human Rights
C# International Covenant on Economic Social and Cultural Rights
D# International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

57# The Vienna Conference on Human Rights was held in the year :
A# 1991
B# 1992
C# 1993
D# 1994

58# The Nobel Peace Prize was awarded in 1977 for the contribution to the cause of Human Rights to :
A# Amnesty International
B# Human Rights Watch
C# World Health Organisation
D# Human Rights Committee

59# The U.N. General Assembly proclaims the Right to Development as Human Rights in the year :
A# 1976
B# 1978
C# 1980
D# 1982

60# The National Human Rights Commission investigates :
A# Complaints against Development Rights of Indians
B# Complaints against Right to Liberty
C# Complaints against other Investigating Agency
D# Complaints against Human Rights Violations

61# Consider the following statements : All persons are joint tort-feasors, who :
(1) aid in the commission of wrongful act
(2) expect one and the same result of their act
(3) joined the act complained

Which of the statements given above are correct ?
A# (1) and (2)
B# (1) and (3)
C# (2) and (3)
D# (1), (2) and (3)

62# Which one of the following statements is correct ? When the act of defendant falls in tort and breach of contract, the defendant may be used :
A# either in tort or breach of contract
B# both in tort and breach of contract
C# in tort only
D# in breach of contract only

63# In Municipal Corporation of Delhi Vs Subhagwanti, the Supreme Court applied which one of the following principles ?
A# Last opportunity rule
B# Contributory negligence
C# Basic negligence
D# Res ipsa loquitur

64# Consider the following situation : The plaintiff, while passing through the public way near defendant’s premises injured by fall of snow accumulated on the roof of the defendant’s house as a result of severe storm, for which no warning has been given by the defendant to passer-by. It is a case of which one of the following ?
A# Nuisance only
B# Negligence only
C# Both Nuisance and Negligence
D# An act of God

65# Consider the following statements : In case of joint publication of defamatory statement :
(1) a corporation is liable for the malice of its agent
(2) the proprietor of a newspaper is liable for the malice of the editor
(3) a lawyer is liable for the malice in the notice issued under the instructions of his client
(4) the employer is liable for the malice of a typist who types a defamatory letter as dictated by his employer

Which of the statements given above are correct ?
A# (1) and (2)
B# (1) and (3)
C# (3) and (4)
D# (1) and (4)

66# What does tort of negligence mean ?
A# Doing an act by failing to take reasonable care which a prudent man would take in similar circumstances
B# Doing an act with intention to cause harm to others
C# Doing an act without displaying mental alertness
D# Doing an act with forgetfulness

67# Assertion (A) : As per the new provision introduced by the Amendment Act, 2002 on receipt of the complaint, the District Consumer Forum may allow the complaint to be proceeded with or rejected.
Reason (R) : Before rejecting the complaint, as stated in the above Assertion, the complainant need not be provided with an opportunity to explain his case.
A# Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B# Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C# (A) is true but (R) is false
D# (A) is false but (R) is true

68# Section 15 of the Indian Partnership Act is related to ________
A# Duty of the partners
B# Partners retirement
C# Right of the partners
D# Partners personal property

69# Which of the following Sections of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 contains the rule of facit relocation ?
A# Section 16
B# Section 17
C# Section 14
D# Section 19

70# Identify the correct statement from the following : Section 12 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 ______
A# is a mixed statement of rights and duties of partners in reference to the conduct of the business
B# is a statement of rights of the partners in reference to the conduct of business
C# is a statement of duties of the partners in the conduct of the business
D# is a statement of obligations of specific partners in the conduct of the business

71# The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 is based on _______
A# The Indian Contract Act, 1872
B# The Transfer of Property Act, 1893
C# The English Sales of Goods Act, 1893
D# The Indian Partnership Act, 1932

72# A contract for sale of goods can be avoided under which of the following conditions as per Section 8 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 ?
If the goods have perished/damaged due to the _________
A# fault of either of the buyer or the seller
B# fault neither of the buyer nor the seller
C# fault of the seller
D# fault of the buyer

73# The breach of ‘warranty’ in a contract under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 causes ________
A# repudiate the contract
B# claim for damages
C# reject the goods
D# Both, repudiate the contract AND claim for damages

74# In _______, it was ruled that alteration of the date of payment is a material alteration ?
A# Showmnn Vs Usman Khan
B# A. Subba Reddy Vs Neelapa Reddy
C# Seth Tulsidas Lalchand Vs Raja Gopal
D# Mohammad Akbar Khan Vs Attar Singh

75# A foreign company under how many days of the establishment of place of business in India shall go for registration under the relevant law ?
A# 30 days
B# 60 days
C# 45 days
D# 50 days


The official answer key for this question paper, along with other all recent previous papers and 100 Mock tests / model papers with unlimited practice are included in our MH SET Law Online Practice Pack.

MH SET Maharashtra SET Law - 100 Mock Tests & Model Papers Series

  • Based on latest Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Law Paper II Syllabus
  • Law Subjects Overview Material covering important topics and concepts - 650 page PDF Book
  • 50 Full Length Mock Tests - New Pattern Paper II, with 100 questions each
  • 50 Mini Practice Mock tests - with 25 questions each
  • Unlimited Practice - New Questions in every mock test with every attempt
  • Answer choices of all questions shuffled randomly for better practice
  • Database of over 9500 MCQs covering the entire syllabus
  • Includes new comprehension based questions
  • Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
  • Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers and Desktops
Authentic Feedback from previous exam users :

"Just wanted to let you know that I have cleared JRF with 99.99th percentile. Thank you for all your help and support that made it possible. " - Kanchan Yadav

"Thank you so much for the UGC NET test series. I finally qualified the exam. It was possible because of the mock test series provided by your team." - Robin Jaiswal

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