MH-SET Previous Question Paper Law 2014 P-II Mock Tests

MH-SET Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Previous Question Paper Law 2014 P II Mock Test Series Model Papers

MH SET Maharashtra SET Law - 100 Mock Tests & Model Papers Series

  • Based on latest Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Law Paper II Syllabus
  • Law Subjects Overview Material covering important topics and concepts - 650 page PDF Book
  • 50 Full Length Mock Tests - New Pattern Paper II, with 100 questions each
  • 50 Mini Practice Mock tests - with 25 questions each
  • Unlimited Practice - New Questions in every mock test with every attempt
  • Answer choices of all questions shuffled randomly for better practice
  • Database of over 9500 MCQs covering the entire syllabus
  • Includes new comprehension based questions
  • Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
  • Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers and Desktops
Authentic Feedback from previous exam users :

"Just wanted to let you know that I have cleared JRF with 99.99th percentile. Thank you for all your help and support that made it possible. " - Kanchan Yadav

"Thank you so much for the UGC NET test series. I finally qualified the exam. It was possible because of the mock test series provided by your team." - Robin Jaiswal

This is the full previous question paper from MH-SET 2014 Paper II Law Subject, i.e. the Maharashtra State Eligibility Test examination conducted in 2014 for eligibility for Assistant Professor posts in Maharashtra & Goa.

The official answer key for this question paper, along with other all recent previous papers and 100 Mock tests / model papers with unlimited practice are included in our online MHSET Law Online Practice Pack.


1# The statutes The Protection of Civil Rights Act and ‘The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act are based on mainly one of the Articles of the Constitutional Law of India :
A# Article 17
B# Article 16
C# Article 15
D# Article 14

2# The main object of Article 39 is :
A# Creation of Democratic State
B# Creation of Welfare State
C# Creation of Humane conditions of work
D# Creation of public assistance

3# The founding fathers of the Constitution borrowed the idea of Judicial Review from :
A# The Constitution of France
B# The Constitution of Switzerland
C# The Constitution of Germany
D# The Constitution of United States of America

4# The executive head of a State is :
A# The Chief Secretary
B# The Chief Justice of High Court
C# The Chief Minister
D# The Governor

5# For proclamation of emergency the words ‘Armed Rebellion’ were substituted for ‘Internal Disturbance’ by the following Constitutional amendment :
A# Thirty ninth Amendment
B# Forty second Amendment
C# Forty fourth Amendment
D# Forty sixth Amendment

6# Which one of the following cases is called and famous as ‘Amending power of the parliament case’ :
A# Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India
B# Minerva Mills Ltd Vs Union of India
C# L.C. Golaknath Vs State of Punjab
D# Indira Nehru Gandhi Vs Raj Narain

7# When a writ is issued to an inferior court or tribunal on the grounds of exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the principles of natural justice it is called :
A# A Writ of Certiorari
B# A Writ of Quo-warranto
C# A Writ of Habeas Corpus
D# A Writ of Mandamus

8# Open prison system is an instance of ______ theory of punishment.
A# Retributive
B# Reformative
C# Expiatory
D# Deterrent

9# According to Prof. Patterson the third stage of sociological jurisprudence is _______
A# Socio-legal research
B# Sociology of law
C# Coming together natural law and social engineering
D# Use of technology in law

10# Common good principle in natural law theory has been propounded by _______
A# Prof. Fuller
B# Prof. Finnis
C# Prof. Murphy
D# Prof. Locke

11# Doctrine of minimum content of morality was advocated by _______
A# Bentham
B# Grotius
C# Hart
D# Kelsen

12# Rights are nothing but the interests which are to be recognised, protected and enforced by law. This proposition is espoused by _______
A# Feinberg
B# Savigny
C# Pound
D# Raz

13# Ownership is a bundle of rights and constitute an intention to hold and the control over the thing. This is reflected in _______
A# Salmond’s theory
B# Pound’s theory
C# Kohler’s theory
D# Holland’s theory

14# Which article of the UN Charter advocates the peaceful means of settlement of disputes between states :
A# Article 13
B# Article 56
C# Article 58
D# Article 2

15# Who advocated the Theory of Non-Recognition of States in international law ?
A# Henry L. Stimson
B# Senor Estrada
C# Ronald Regan
D# George Bush

16# Which Secretary General of the UN advocated the Millennium Goals of the UN ?
A# Boutrous Boutrous Ghali
B# Perez de collar
C# Kofi Annan
D# U Thant

17# On which day in 1945 the United Nations was established ?
A# October 24
B# October 25
C# October 23
D# October 28

18# In which case the Permanent Court of Justice discussed the significance of sources of international law ?
A# Suez Canal case
B# Corfu channel case
C# Lotus case
D# AMCO V Republic of Indonesia

19# In which year the Genocide Convention came into force ?
A# 1948
B# 1950
C# 1952
D# 1951

20# Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : In Muta marriage period of cohabitation should be fixed.
Reason (R) : Where dower is fixed but term of cohabitation is not fixed Muta marriage will be treated as ‘permanent’ marriage even if either of the parties is non-Muslim.
A# Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B# Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C# (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
D# (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

21# Who applied ‘Qiyas’ for the first time as source of Muslim law ?
A# Imam Abu Hanifa
B# Imam Yusuf
C# Imam Ahmed
D# Imam Later

22# According to the Shariat, if one of the parent is a Muslim, the child begotten should be treated as _______
A# a Muslim
B# belonging to the religion of the father
C# belonging to the religion of the mother
D# belonging to the religion mutually agreed by both mother and father

23# Which among the following Vedas- the fountain-head of Hindu religion and law is the oldest one ?
A# Sama Veda
B# Yajur Veda
C# Rig Veda
D# Atharva Veda

24# In _______, the Apex Court observed that ‘the progressive outlook and the wider approach of Islamic law cannot be permitted to be squeezed and narrowed by unscrupulous litigants, apparently indulging sexual lust sought to be quenched by illegal means, who apparently are found to be guilty of commission of offence under the law to which they belonged before their alleged conversion’.
A# Lily Thomas V. Union of India
B# Vinita Saxena V. Pankaj Pandit
C# Shobha Rani V. Madhukar Reddy
D# Durga Prasanna Tripathy V. Arundhati Tripathy

25# Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : The conditions for a valid Hindu Marriage are specified in section 5 wherein the requirement of non-sagotra for such a marriage is not laid down.
Reason (R) : So even Sagotra Marriages are now perfectly valid although a section of Hindus are vehemently opposing.
A# Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
B# Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
C# (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
D# (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

26# Five tests were laid down in determining whether a given conduct amounts to legal _______ in Dastane V. Dastane.
A# Adultery
B# Desertion
C# Cruelty
D# Infidelity

27# What is the impact of ‘undue influence’ on the enforceability of a contract ?
A# Void directly
B# Void at the option of the party
C# Void partially
D# No remedy available to parties

28# Under what circumstances a court may refuse to entertain a foreign decree in the enforceability of Contractual Agreements ?
A# Capacity of Parties
B# Being a Foreign Judgement
C# Against Public Policy
D# According to the Discretion of the Court

29# What section of Contract Act defines consideration ?
A# Section 3
B# Section 2(d)
C# Section 10
D# Section 15

30# In which of the following cases it was held that a notice not to be treated as an invitation to offer ?
A# Carlill V Carbolic Smoke Ball co.
B# Fisher V. Bell
C# Hadley V. Baxsendale
D# Dunlop Pneumatic Tyre Co. Ltd. V. Selfridge Co. Ltd

31# The concept of adequate notice to the offeree of the printed terms and conditions was advocated in which case by the House of Lords ?
A# Dublin V Henry
B# Johnson V Johnson
C# Henderson V Stevenson
D# Parker V Parker

32# Which section authorizes the parties to contract to claim compensation for a breach of contract ?
A# Section 29
B# Section 50
C# Section 73
D# Section 96

33# An act done by a government servant in exercise of statutory power is a defence ________
A# if the said act is a constitutional act
B# if the said act is in exercise of sovereign function
C# if the said act is in exercise of non-sovereign function
D# both, if the said act is a constitutional act or is in exercise of non-sovereign function

34# According to _______ ‘Negligence is culpable carelessness’.
A# Pollock
B# Halsbury
C# Salmond
D# Winfield

35# Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : No action lies for mere damage caused by some act which does not violate a legal right.
Reason (R) : An action lies for interference with another’s legal private right even where it causes no actual damage.
A# Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B# Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C# (A) is true but (R) is false
D# (A) is false but (R) is true

36# Ashby V. White recognised the principle of ubi jus ibi remedium by following the ______ theory.
A# Salmond’s
B# Fleming’s
C# Heuston’s
D# Winfield’s

37# Peninsular and Oriental Steam Navigation Co. V. Secretary of State for India is a leading case on _____
A# Strict liability
B# Vicarious liability of the State
C# Absolute liability
D# Both, Strict and Absolute liability

38# Which one of the following is not an exception to the rule recognised by Rylands V. Fletcher and some later cases ?
A# Plaintiff’s own default
B# Consent of the plaintiff
C# Non-natural use of land
D# Act of God

39# Fraudulently has been defined as doing anything with intent to defraud but not otherwise under section :
A# 23 of IPC
B# 23 of Indian Evidence Act
C# 25 of IPC
D# 22 of Criminal Procedure Code

40# Showing pornography to a women against her will amounts to offence of _____
A# Indecency
B# Sexual harassment
C# Corrupting morals
D# Criminal force

41# A, an office of a court of justice, being ordered by that court to arrest Y and after due enquiry, believing Z to be Y arrests Z. A has committed no offence by virtue of _____
A# Section 26 of IPC
B# Section 25 of Indian Evidence Act
C# Section 52 of IPC
D# Section 76 of IPC

42# Offence of ‘gang rape’ is provided under :
A# Section 376 D of IPC
B# Section 374 of IPC
C# Not explicitly provided under IPC
D# Section 375 of IPC

43# To constitute criminal conspiracy what ingredient needs to prevail ?
A# Object of the act
B# Illegality of the act
C# Consequences of the act
D# Manner of execution of the act

44# With respect to offence of Abetment which of the following is a correct statement ?
A# the act abetted should be committed
B# effect requisite to constitute the offence should be caused
C# instigation and conspiracy to commit the crime must be there
D# The abettor must physically assist commission of crime

45# Where evil could have been averted only by committing the offence, the wrongdoer is exempted from criminal liability under the following general exceptions :
A# Compulsion by threat
B# Trivial Acts
C# Necessity
D# Consent

46# What is the object of the Trade Unions Act ?
A# To settle disputes
B# To confer social security on the working class
C# To regulate working conditions
D# To confer certain protections and privileges

47# Registration and recognition of trade union is compulsory under ______
A# The Trade Unions Act, 1926
B# The Societies Registration Act
C# Companies Act 1956 (as amended in 2013)
D# MRTP and PULP Act

48# Under the Industrial Disputes Act who is under duty to promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations between employer and workmen :
A# Registrar of Companies
B# Works Committee
C# Labour Court
D# National Tribunal

49# If a termination of service of a workman falls under ‘any reason whatsoever’ it would be retrenchment except if the case falls within any of the exempted category mentioned in the ID Act was held in ______
A# State Bank Of India vs Shri N. Sundara Money
B# K.P. Krishnan V. Bank of India
C# Tatanagar Foundry Co. Ltd vs Their Workmen
D# Western India Match Company Ltd Vs Workmen

50# The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 provides for voluntary Arbitration under section ______
A# 10 (1)
B# 11 A
C# 10 A
D# 9 A


The official answer key for this question paper, along with other all recent previous papers and 100 Mock tests / model papers with unlimited practice are included in our MH SET Law Online Practice Pack.

MH SET Maharashtra SET Law - 100 Mock Tests & Model Papers Series

  • Based on latest Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Law Paper II Syllabus
  • Law Subjects Overview Material covering important topics and concepts - 650 page PDF Book
  • 50 Full Length Mock Tests - New Pattern Paper II, with 100 questions each
  • 50 Mini Practice Mock tests - with 25 questions each
  • Unlimited Practice - New Questions in every mock test with every attempt
  • Answer choices of all questions shuffled randomly for better practice
  • Database of over 9500 MCQs covering the entire syllabus
  • Includes new comprehension based questions
  • Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
  • Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers and Desktops
Authentic Feedback from previous exam users :

"Just wanted to let you know that I have cleared JRF with 99.99th percentile. Thank you for all your help and support that made it possible. " - Kanchan Yadav

"Thank you so much for the UGC NET test series. I finally qualified the exam. It was possible because of the mock test series provided by your team." - Robin Jaiswal

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