KSET Law 2018 Karnataka Previous Question Paper & Mock Test Series

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1. Right to property was deleted from the list of fundamental rights in the year
(A) 1976
(B) 1974
(C) 1977
(D) 1978

 

2. How many official languages have been recognized by the Constitution of India ?
(A) 22
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 16

 

3. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :

List – I
a. Keshavanandha Bharathi’s case
b. Mandal’s case
c. Kasthurilal’s case
d. Minerva Mills case

List – II
1. Reservation case
2. Fundamental Rights case
3. Judicial review case
4. Tortious liability case

Codes : a b c d
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 4 2 1

 

4. Under which entry of 9th Schedule, The Tamil Nadu Backward classes, Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes Act, 1993 was incorporated ?
(A) 257
(B) 257 – A
(C) 258
(D) 259

 

5. Which are the rights not come under the list of unenumerated fundamental rights under Article 21 of the constitution ?
i. Right to health
ii. Right to clean environment
iii. Right to education
iv. Right to food
(A) Only i
(B) i and ii
(C) Only iii
(D) i, ii and iii

 

6. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : A proclamation of emergency can be issued by the President if there is imminent danger of war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
Reason (R) : The President can suspend the enforcement of all fundamental rights during the period of emergency.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation to (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct explanation to (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

 

7. Which of the following constitutional amendments states that the total number of Ministers including the prime Minister, in the council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the house of the people ?
(A) 90th
(B) 91st
(C) 92nd
(D) 93rd

 

8. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the seventh schedule of the Constitution of India ?
(A) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(B) Agriculture
(C) Fisheries
(D) Public health

 

9. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :

List – I
a. Inter state water dispute
b. Amendment
c. Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court
d. Residuary power

List – II
1. Article 248
2. Article 262
3. Article 368
4. Article 131

Codes : a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 2 1 3 4

 

10. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?
The term ‘natural law’ like ‘positivism’ has applied by different people at different times.
i. Ideals which guide legal development and administration
ii. A basic moral quality in law prevents a total separation of the ‘is’ from the ‘ought’
iii. The contents of perfect law deducible by reason iv. The method of discovering perfect law
(A) Only i is correct
(B) i and ii are correct
(C) i, ii and iii are correct
(D) i, ii, iii and iv are correct

 

11. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : A precedent is binding when it is conformed with the fundamental principles of law.
Reason (R) : The purpose of law is to ensure uniformity in the judgement.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

 

12. Which one of the following jurists said “a good judge is one who is the master, not the slave, of the cases” ?
(A) Lord Mekinnon
(B) Lord Wright
(C) Justice Holmes
(D) Lord Denning

 

13. Which one of the following is the principal exponent of the realist theory of legal person ?
(A) Ihering
(B) Kelsen
(C) Gierke
(D) Duguit

 

14. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Judges are not legislators and their duty is to apply law and administer justice.
Reason (R) : It is the function of legislature to make law.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

 

15. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :

List – I (Author)
a. Bentham
b. Prof. Olivecrona
c. Austin
d. Buckland

List – II (Book)
i. The province of jurisprudence determined
ii. Some reflections on Jurisprudence
iii. An introduction to the principles of moral and legislation
iv. Law as fact

Codes : a b c d
(A) iii iv ii i
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) iv iii ii i

 

16. Which of the following is not a theory of possession ?
(A) Pollock’s theory
(B) Salmond’s theory
(C) Holme’s theory
(D) Hohfeld’s theory

 

17. Who among the following propounded that the source of law is general conscience of the people ?
(A) Puchta
(B) Savigny
(C) Hegel
(D) Maine

 

18. Possession acquired through an agent or a servant is
(A) Corporeal
(B) Incorporeal
(C) Mediate
(D) Immediate

 

19. The problem of fragmentation of international law means
(A) Fragmentation of International Law concerns the possibility of different legal regimes apply the same rule of international law
(B) It is possible for several legal regimes to exist and develop in isolation of each other, ultimately culminating in the production of divergent rules by International law
(C) Fragmentation is when states disagree to abide by a certain rule of International law
(D) Fragmentation is when states assume different interpretations of the same rule of International Law

 

20. Which of the following treaties are considered as source of International law under Article-38 of ICJ statute ?
(A) All treaties that are inforce at the time of the dispute
(B) International conventions whether general or particular establishing rules expressly recognized by the parties to the dispute
(C) All treaties that have been concluded between the parties to the dispute, regardless whether they are in force
(D) Only treaties that are multilateral and paramount significance

 

21. In which case the international court of justice was strict in requiring the proff of opinio juris ?
(A) Corfu channel case
(B) Charzow factory case
(C) Barcelona Traction case
(D) Lotus case

 

22. UDHR was adopted in
(A) 1945
(B) 1946
(C) 1948
(D) 1947

 

23. Mare Liberum
1. Is a set of treaties written by Grotius
2. It was published in 1625
3. It contains doctrine of freedom of seas

Identify the correct statements.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 3

 

24. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

List – I
a. Right to Development
b. Refugees
c. Freedom of speech
d. Beijing declaration

List – II
1. International tumaitarian law
2. III Generation Human Rights
3. Rights of women
4. Civil and political rights

Codes : a b c d
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 4 1 2 3

 

25. Match the following :

a. International convention on the elimination of all forms of Racial Discrimination (ICERD)
b. International Convention on Civil and political rights (ICCPR)
c. International Convention on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR)
d. Convention on the elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against women (CEDAW)

1. Came into force from January-3-1976
2. Came in to force on 3-September-1981
3. Came in to force on 4-January-1969
4. Came in to force on 23-March-1976

Codes : a b c d
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 1 3 4 2

 

26. Recognition ‘De jure’ implies
(A) The recognised state fulfills the requirement laid under the International law
(B) ICJ gives recognition
(C) That the state fulfills the above requirement infact
(D) That the state if recognised by the neighbouring state

 

27. Compulsory registration of marriage is related with which of the following cases ?
(A) Lata Singh v/s state of Uttar Pradesh
(B) Sheela Ravi v/s Jadish Sharma
(C) Lily Thomas v/s Union of India
(D) Seema v/s Ashwani Kumar

 

28. In which of the following cases the court dissolved the marriage on the ground of irretrieval breakdown of marriage under the dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 ?
(A) Itwari v/s Asghari
(B) Mumshee Buzloor Ruheem v/s Shumsunisa Begam
(C) Amma kahatoon v/s Kashim Ansari
(D) Mohammed v/s Saeeda Amina Begum

 

29. In case of a Hindu male, who is having more than one wife adopts a child, who will be the adoptive mother ?
(A) All the wives are adoptive mother
(B) Only the senior most in the marriage is adoptive mother and remaining wives are step mothers
(C) Only eldest wife by age is adoptive mother and other as step mother
(D) The husband will decide the adoptive mother among all wives

 

30. The divorce under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is based on
(A) Fault theory only
(B) Fault theory and consent theory
(C) Fault theory, consent theory and breakdown theory
(D) Consent theory and breakdown theory

 

31. The Hindu Code was drafted by
(A) Rau Committee which was referred to committee of the Constituent Assembly
(B) Rau Committee which was not referred to committee of the Constituent Assembly
(C) Constituent Assembly
(D) A special committee of the Constituent Assembly

 

32. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?
(A) Prathibha Rani v/s Suraj Kumar – Criminal law and matrimonial law are not strangers
(B) Shobha Rani v/s Madhukar Reddy – Apex court observed that demanding money from wife for the enhancement of husbands hospital is not cruelty
(C) Sarala Mudgal v/s Union of India – Uniform civil code
(D) Mr. X v/s Hospital Z – Marriage is a sacred union, legally permissible of two healthy bodies of opposite sex

 

33. When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing any thing, with a view to obstaining the assent of that other to such act or abstenence, denotes
(A) An agreement
(B) A contract
(C) A proposal
(D) Consideration

 

34. A contract is said to be induced by undue influence if
a. One party dominates the will of another
b. Stands in a fiduciary relationship
c. Makes a contract with a person of mental incapacity
d. One party executes an agreement with consideration
(A) a, b and c are correct and d is wrong
(B) Only a is correct
(C) Only b is correct
(D) a and b are correct

 

35. Active concealment of a fact is associated with which one of the following ?
(A) Fraud
(B) Mistake
(C) Undue influence
(D) Misrepresentation

 

36. Match the following :

a. Foreign Sovereigns and Ambassadors
b. Alien enemy
c. Migrants from Bangladesh staying on visiting visa
d. Convict

1. Can enter into a contract but he loses his contractual capacity during war time
2. Can enter into a contract but they can not be sued
3. Disqualified to enter into a contract during conviction
4. Disqualified

Codes : a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 2 1 4

 

37. Non Est. Factum is a
(A) Latin word
(B) It is not (my) deed
(C) A defence in contract law
(D) All of the options are correct

 

38. Which of the following is not an essential element of contract ?
(A) An offer and acceptance
(B) Consideration
(C) Possibility of performance
(D) Novation

 

39. ‘Pardanashin’ women means
(A) A woman who observes the rule of seclusion
(B) A woman with veil
(C) A woman kept in dark
(D) Both, A woman with veil and A woman kept in dark

 

40. Threat of bringing criminal charges amounts to
(A) Coercion
(B) Duress
(C) Not a coercion
(D) Both, coercion and duress

 

41. “Shock must be such as arises from reasonable fear of immediate personal injury to oneself” was held in the case of
(A) Mrs. Dulieu V. White and Sons
(B) Mrs. Hambrook V. Stokes Bros
(C) Boushik V. Young
(D) Wilkinson V. Downton

 

42. ‘Res ipsa loquitur’ means
(A) He who does an act through another is does for himself
(B) Things speaks for itself
(C) Damage without injury
(D) Let the principal be liable

 

43. Consider the following statements : For making occupier or owner of a land liable on the basis of strict liability rule, certain essential factors required to be fulfilled are
i. Of a dangerous thing on his land
ii. Non-natural use of land
iii. use of thing for common benefit
iv. Escape of thing from his control
(A) i, ii and iv
(B) i, ii and iii
(C) i, iii and iv
(D) iii and iv only

 

44. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :

List – I
a. Act of God
b. Consent
c. Statutory Authority
d. Act of state

List – II
1. Buron V. Denman
2. Hall V. Brookland and auto racing club
3. Nicholas V. Marsland
4. Metropolitan Asylum case

Codes : a b c d
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 4 2 1 3

 

45. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : H writes to his wife a letter, which contains defamatory matter about B. H is not liable to B for defamation.
Reason (R) : Communication of defamatory matter by a H to his wife or vice-versa is not a publication for what passes between them is protected.
(A) Both (A) and (R) individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) individually true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

 

46. All persons who aid or counsel or direct or join in the committal of a wrongful act are
(A) Contractually liable
(B) Joint tort-feasors
(C) Criminally liable
(D) Not liable

 

47. De minimis non curat lex means
(A) Law does not take account of every trifling matter
(B) Plaintiff must present the damage in minimum degree
(C) Your behaviour should not hamper the work of others
(D) You must not withdraw the support of the land of others

 

48. Within the meaning of consumer protection Act, 1986, any fault, imperfection, short coming or in adequacy in the service in respect of the quality, nature and manner of performance is called
(A) defect
(B) Deficiency
(C) Fault
(D) Mistake

 

49. Assertion (A) : Necessity knows no law.
Reason (R) : Necessity does not justify indiscriminate throwing of passengers over board to save sinking boat.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the not correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (R) is true but (A) is false

 

50. A police officer arrested and detained a person in the lock-up despite bail order. The police officer shall be guilty of
(A) Kidnapping
(B) Abduction
(C) Intimidation
(D) Wrongful confinement

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Authentic Feedback from previous exam users :

"Just wanted to let you know that I have cleared JRF with 99.99th percentile. Thank you for all your help and support that made it possible. " - Kanchan Yadav

"Thank you so much for the UGC NET test series. I finally qualified the exam. It was possible because of the mock test series provided by your team." - Robin Jaiswal

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