CLAT 2019 Previous Question Paper – CLAT Mock Test Series

This is the complete CLAT UG 2019 LLB Entrance question paper. The exam is conducted by the NLU CLAT Consortium for admissions to the 5 year LLB program in various NLUs across India.

The official answer keys are included in our Online CLAT Mock Test series, where you can get unlimited access to all the previous question papers and 100 CLAT Mock Tests.

Try the free demo mock tests before you decide to purchase.

Note: The mock tests on LawMint.com are for the CLAT PG LLM entrance and not for CLAT UG.

CLAT PG 2025 - Comprehension Mock Tests Series & Previous Question Papers
  • Updated as per latest CLAT PG pattern
  • Overall there are 300+ comprehension passages - with 2300+ questions
  • 100 passages are provided as stand-alone mini mock tests
  • 120 passages are combined to form 10 full-length mock tests
  • 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023 and 2024 (New Pattern) Question papers included as mock tests
  • Answers include the reason or 'rationale' for better understanding
  • Order of the questions and answer choices are shuffled in every attempt for better practice
  • All the stand-alone passages & full length mocks can be repeated till you score 100%
  • The passages are of various lengths and complexities for better practice
  • Unlimited access & practice - valid for one year from date of purchase
  • Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers and Desktops

Also included in the pack : (Useful for non-CLAT LLM entrance exams) :
  • 11 CLAT PG old pattern previous Papers - 2009 to 2019 (as mock tests)
  • 50 full-length old MCQ format mock tests (100 questions each)
  • 50 old pattern MCQ mini-mock tests (25 questions each)
  • Summarized overview of Important Jurisprudence topics (For Subjective & Objective questions)
  • Overview of all Constitutional Amendments
  • All Tests & Previous Papers are timed and have Negative marking for realistic simulation
  • Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
  • More the 100 LawMint users were selected by various top NLUs in 2020, 2021, 2022 and 2023 - Including NLSIU, NALSAR, NLU-J, WBNUJS
  • Our users were also selected for the IIT KGP LLM, NLU Delhi (AILET PG) & DU LLM programs
CLAT PG 2021 Mock Test Series and Previous Question Papers

Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty
CLAT 2019 QUESTION PAPER – CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES – SECTION : ENGLISH

CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES – Directions: From each set of sentences given below in question 1 to 10, choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.

1. (A) A few judges have cut short their vacation to clear a long pending cases.
(B) A few judges have cut short vacation to clear the long pending cases.
(C) A few judges has cut short its vacation to clear the long pending cases.
(D) A few judges have cut short their vacation to clear the long pending cases.

2. (A) Where’s Hari? Here is he, right in front of us!
(B) Where’s Hari? Here he is, right in front of us!
(C) Wheres’ Hari? He is here, right in front of us!
(D) Where’s Hari? Is he here, right in front of us!

3. (A) Customs officer’s do not allow passenger to carry banned items into or out of the country.
(B) Customs officers does not allow passengers to carry banned items into or out of country.
(C) Customs officers do not allows passengers to carry banned items into or out of country.
(D) Customs officers do not allow passengers to carry banned items into or out of the country.

4. (A) Neither this nor that machine is working.
(B) Neither this nor that machine are working.
(C) Neither this and that machine is working.
(D) Neither this but that machine is working.

5. (A) I shall be doing a MBA online, and continue with my present job.
(B) I shall do a MBA online, and continue with my present job.
(C) I shall do an MBA online, and continue with my present job.
(D) I shall do an MBA online, but continuing with my present job.

6. (A) As soon as I boarded the train, I realized that I left my wallet at home.
(B) As soon as I boarded the train, I realize that I had left wallet at home.
(C) As soon as I board the train, I realized that I leave my wallet at home.
(D) As soon as I boarded the train, I realized that I had left my wallet at home.

7. (A) We can take either the morning flight nor the one in the afternoon.
(B) We can take neither the morning flight or the one in the afternoon.
(C) We can take either morning flight or the one in afternoon.
(D) We can take either the morning flight or the one in the afternoon.

8. (A) The management have promised that it will consider my appeal.
(B) The management has promised that it will consider my appeal.
(C) The management has promise that they will consider my appeal.
(D) The management has promised that it will considered my appeal.

9. (A) Tourists must follow the norms set upon the country they visit.
(B) Tourists must follow norms set by country they visit.
(C) Tourists must follow the norms set by the country they visit.
(D) Tourists must follow the norms set by the country they visits.

10. (A) An important file, along with two uniforms, are missing from the police station.
(B) A important file, along with two uniforms, is missed from the police station.
(C) An important files, along with two uniforms, are missing from the police station.
(D) An important file, along with two uniforms, is missing from the police station.

CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES – Directions: In each of the questions given below in questions 11 to 15, each sentence is labelled with a letter. From the given choices, choose the most logical order of sentences that constructs a coherent paragraph.

11. a. One of them copied and pasted large portions of the required text from a website.
b. Before assigning the project to his students, the guide gave a presentation on plagiarism.
c. The expulsion order that followed was not alarming.
d. A few students did not pay much heed to the consequences of the illegal act.
(A) cabd
(B) dbca
(C) badc
(D) bdac

12. a. Goals are set, and relevant data is collected and analyzed.
b. Strategies are made on the basis of the data and resources made available.
c. There are various stages in framing a management- strategy, and its implementation.
d. The strategies are implemented and monitored to ensure that the goals are achieved.
(A) abdc
(B) acbd
(C) cabd
(D) cbad

13. a. Despite the awareness, some citizens fail to pay their taxes honestly.
b. One of the factors that impacts our country’s economy is income- tax.
c. Awareness regarding this aspect of our economy is often made through the education system and media.
d. Most of these defaulters not only get into trouble, but they also create additional work for the income-tax department.
(A) adbc
(B) cbad
(C) bcad
(D) bdac

14. a. The responsible citizen helped to foil the plan of a hijack.
b. The deep pockets of his leather jacket contained what had been feared!
c. A person called up the airport and gave a message.
d. All the passengers were carefully frisked, and one of them was asked to step aside.
(A) badc
(B) cdba
(C) dacb
(D) cdab

15. a. In the following years, more layers of snow add up to the existing mass.
b. Consequently, the weight of the snow compresses and turns into solid ice.
c. Most glaciers are found near the Poles.
d. They begin to form when snow remains in the same area all year round.
(A) acbd
(B) cdba
(C) abdc
(D) cdab

CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES – Directions: Choose the correct meaning for each of the foreign language words and phrases given below in questions 16 to 20.

16. inter vivos
(A) a transaction made for obtaining a legacy
(B) an agreement to promote the welfare of one’s country
(C) a transaction made between living people
(D) an agreement between warring nations

17. quantum ramifactus
(A) the amount of damages suffered
(B) the quality of goods supplied
(C) the amount of relief given for damages caused
(D) the weightage given to someone’s suggestion

18. malus
(A) mass
(B) harmless
(C) harmful
(D) comforting

19. Volvo
(A) I roll
(B) I run
(C) I leap
(D) I jump

20. Charade
(A) series
(B) charter
(C) pretense
(D) spate

CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES – Directions: Choose the correctly spelled words in questions 21 to 25 to fill in the blanks.

21. Malti Ahuja is making a sincere effort to pay off her ______.
(A) crediter
(B) creditar
(C) credittor
(D) creditor

22. It is our responsibility to leave a green and clean world for our ______.
(A) descendents
(B) decendants
(C) descendants
(D) descendantes

23. The patient’s death was the result of sheer ______ on the part of the surgeon.
(A) negligience
(B) negligence
(C) negligennce
(D) neglegence

24. The scientist’s biography is a blatant ______ of facts.
(A) misrepresentation
(B) misreprezentation
(C) misrepresentetion
(D) misreprisentation

25. It was a ______ to work with these scientists.
(A) previlege
(B) priviledge
(C) privilige
(D) privilege

CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES – Directions for Questions 26 to 30: Fill in the blank with the correct options.

26. Son, ______! Research the company before you apply for the job.
(A) build castles in the air
(B) hit the ceiling
(C) get off on the wrong foot
(D) hold your horses

27. Please, ______! This is not the time to get anxious.
(A) pull yourself together
(B) pass the buck
(C) bark up the wrong tree
(D) go on a wild goose chase

28. In our company, we don’t accept such carelessly done work. ______
(A) So far so good.
(B) Get your act together.
(C) We’ll cross the bridge when we come to it.
(D) Your guess is as good as mine.

29. I can’t work on this assignment anymore! I think I have ______.
(A) broken the ice
(B) added insult to injury
(C) chewed cud
(D) bitten off more than I can chew

30. I’m a historian. I’m a ______ in this seminar on robots!
(A) drop in the bucket
(B) fish out of water
(C) fly in the ointment
(D) fly on the wall

CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES – Directions for Questions 31 to 40: The questions in this section are based on what is stated or implied in the passage given below. For each question, choose the option that most accurately and completely answers the question.

The words invention and Innovation are closely linked, but they are not interchangeable. The inventor is a genius who uses his intellect, imagination, time and resources to create something that does not exist. But this invention may or may not be of utility to the masses. It is the enterprising innovator who uses various resources, skills and time to make the invention available for use. The innovator might use the invention as it is, modify it or even blend two or more inventions to make one marketable product. A great example is that of the iPhone which is a combination of various inventions.

If an invention is the result of countless trials and errors, so can be the case with an innovation. Not every attempt to make an invention is successful. Not every innovation sees the light of the day. Benjamin Franklin had the belief that success doesn’t come without challenge, mistake, and in a few cases failure.
One of the world’s most famous innovators, Steve Jobs says, “Sometimes when you innovate, you make mistakes. It is best to admit them quickly and get on with improving your other innovations.”

Thus, inventors and innovators have to be intrepid enough to take risks; consider failures as stepping stones and not stumbling blocks.

Some inventions are the result of a keen observation or a simple discovery. The inventor of Velcro, also called the zipless zipper, is the Swiss engineer George de Mestral. He was hiking in the woods when he found burrs clinging to his clothes and his dog’s fur. Back at home, he studied the burrs. He discovered that each burr was a collection of tiny hooks which made it cling on to another object. A few years later, he made and patented the strips of fabric that came to us as Velcro.

The world of inventions and innovations is a competitive one. But the race does not end here; it is also prevalent in the case of getting intellectual property rights. There have been inventors who failed to get a single patent while there have been some who managed to amass numerous patents in their lifetime. Thomas Edison had 1,093 patents to his credit!

We relate the telephone with Alexander Graham Bell. It is believed that around the same time, Antonio Meucci had also designed the telephone, but due to lack of resources and various hardships, he could not proceed with the patent of his invention. It is also believed that Elisha Gray had made a design for the telephone and applied for the patent at the U.S. patent office on the same day as Graham Bell did. By sheer chance, Graham’s lawyer’s turn to file the papers came first. Hence, Graham was granted the first patent for the telephone.

It is not easy, and at times almost impossible, for an inventor to be an innovator too. There are very few like Thomas Edison who graduated from being an incredible inventor to a successful manufacturer and businessman with brilliant marketing skills.

While innovations that have helped to enhance the quality of life are laudable, equally laudable are the inventions that laid the foundation of these very innovations.

31. The text in the passage can be best termed as
(A) narrative
(B) descriptive
(C) persuasive
(D) expository

32. The main idea of the author is to
(A) highlight the difficulties faced by innovators.
(B) focus on the hardships of patent -seekers.
(C) compare innovators to inventors.
(D) reveal the importance of inventors.

33. The author believes that
(A) innovators enhance the utility of inventions.
(B) innovators face fewer challenges than inventors do.
(C) every inventor has a patent for the invention.
(D) invention is the same as innovation.

34. Benjamin Franklin and Steve Jobs, believe that
(A) there is no place for mistakes in the process of making an innovation.
(B) making a mistake before finding success is not unusual.
(C) failure is a permanent stumbling block.
(D) all innovators have to go through failure.

35. Velcro can be best described as
(A) a highly-planned and deeply researched invention
(B) the fruit of failure
(C) the need of the hour
(D) an accidental invention

36. It is believed that Graham Bell became the first patent holder of the telephone because of
(A) his ingenuity and good fortune.
(B) the carelessness of Elisha’s lawyer.
(C) the clever trick played by his lawyer.
(D) the biased officials in the patent office.

37. Which of the following is Untrue?
(A) Inventors may not be innovators.
(B) Innovators are not expected to be enterprising.
(C) To get a patent, the applicant has to follow a legal process.
(D) Intellectual property rights are not always easy to get.

38. Which of the following texts from the passage clearly indicates failure?
(A) The world of inventions and innovations is a competitive one.
(B) Not every innovation sees the light of the day.
(C) Thus, inventors and innovators have to be intrepid enough to take risks;
(D) None of the above

39. Which of these words can replace the word intrepid?
(A) hasty
(B) intellectual
(C) daring
(D) rich

40. Which of these words is the antonym of laudable?
(A) praiseworthy
(B) challenging
(C) tiring
(D) disgraceful

CLAT UG 2019 QUESTION PAPER – CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES – SECTION – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND CURRENT AFFAIRS

41. The Chief Central Information Commissioner at present is:
(A) Sudhir Bhargava
(B) R.K. Mathur
(C) Sridhar Acharyulu
(D) Handu

42. India has recently set up the latest ISRO’s Satellite Tracking and Data Reception Centre in:
(A) Maldives
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Bhutan
(D) Nepal

43. The number of complaints with the Banking Ombudsman registered during 2018 increased by:
(A) 10 Percent
(B) 15 Percent
(C) 20 Percent
(D) 25 Percent

44. Which of the following formally quit from UNESCO recently?
(A) U.S.A
(B) China
(C) Sweden
(D) India

45. The maximum punishment for a cyber-stalker imposed by an anti-terrorism court in Pakistan is:
(A) 5 years
(B) 14 years
(C) 10 years
(D) 24 years

46. In a major relief to micro, small and medium enterprises, the GST Council has recently increased the tax exemption limit per annum to:
(A) 20 lakhs
(B) 30 lakhs
(C) 40 lakhs
(D) 60 lakhs

47. Which of the following fruits got the Geographical Indication during October 2018?
(A) Shahi Litchi
(B) Laxman Bhog Mango
(C) Sirumalai Hill Banana
(D) Mahabaleshwar Strawberry

48. The richest person in the world as per the details revealed in March 2019 is:
(A) Bill Gates
(B) Jeff Bezos
(C) Amancio Ortega
(D) Bernard Arnault

49. The number of EB – 5 visa applications, also known as ‘cash for Green Card’ visa to the U.S has increased in the last two years by about:
(A) 100 Percent
(B) 200 Percent
(C) 300 Percent
(D) 400 Percent

50. India purchased surveillance aircrafts (AWACS) during 2016 from:
(A) USA
(B) France
(C) Russia
(D) Israel

51. The fastest train in India is:
(A) Gatiman Express
(B) Shatabdi Express
(C) Vande Bharat Express
(D) Rajdhani Express

52. The first humanoid police robot was introduced in the State of:
(A) Karnataka
(B) Delhi
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala

53. The world’s first Diesel to Electric locomotive twin engine of 10,000 horse power was flagged off in:
(A) U.S.A.
(B) China
(C) India
(D) South Korea

54. The Headquarters of International Solar Alliance consisting of more than 121 countries is located in:
(A) India
(B) South Africa
(C) Malaysia
(D) China

55. The prestigious Seoul Peace Prize for 2018 was conferred on:
(A) Kofi Annan
(B) Angela Merkel
(C) Narendra Modi
(D) Putin

56. Which of the following countries during 2019 provided life time personal tax exemption to women with four children?
(A) India
(B) Hungary
(C) Norway
(D) Finland

57. In the 64th Film Fare Award, who won the best actress award?
(A) Katrina Kapoor
(B) Priyanka Chopra
(C) Deepika Padukone
(D) Alia Bhatt

58. Recently, the Government of India relaxed the Angel Tax Norms for Start-ups and enhanced the investment limit to:
(A) Rs. 25 Crore
(B) Rs. 20 Crore
(C) Rs. 15 Crore
(D) Rs. 30 Crore

59. India’s first Chairperson of Lokpal is:
(A) Justice Dipak Mishra
(B) Justice Dilip Bhosale
(C) Justice P.C. Ghose
(D) Justice Thakur

60. In how many phases the 17th Lok Sabha elections were held in 2019?
(A) Six
(B) Seven
(C) Five
(D) Eight

61. How many States went to polls along with the 2019 Lok Sabha elections?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Two

62. The National Common Mobility Card (NCMC), launched by the Central Government recently is also dubbed as:
(A) One Nation One Card
(B) Citizenship Card
(C) Aadhar Card
(D) Shopping Card

63. Which of the following cities bagged the Cleanest City Award for three consecutive years?
(A) Mysore
(B) Ahmedabad
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Indore

64. Who is known as the ‘Father of Local Government in India’?
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Lord Mayo
(C) Lord Wellesley
(D) Lord Ripon

65. Under which of the following missions, India has successfully tested its first-ever Anti-Satellite (A-SAT) Missile capability?
(A) Mission Shakti
(B) Mission Agni
(C) Mission Raftar
(D) Mission Sahas

66. Which Indian personality is the recipient of the Oxford University’s Bodley Medal 2019?
(A) Raghuram Rajan
(B) Amartya Sen
(C) Manmohan Singh
(D) Shashi Tharoor

67. What is the name of the book containing English translation of the 100 year old classic Punjabi poem about Jallianwala Bagh massacre?
(A) Drummer Hodge
(B) Poems of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre
(C) Poems about war
(D) Khooni Vaisakhi

68. Which country has released a special stamp on Hindu epic Ramayana to commemorate the 70th anniversary of the diplomatic ties with India?
(A) Indonesia
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) India

69. Which day is observed as International Mother Earth Day?
(A) April 20
(B) April 21
(C) April 23
(D) April 22

70. Which state’s Kandhamal Haldi (turmeric) received Geographical Indications (GI) tag recently?
(A) Odisha
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu

71. Which country’s Navy department has signed first reliable communication link with the Indian Navy and Pacific Naval Commands under the COMCASA pact?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Japan
(C) Russia
(D) US

72. Name the script writer, who won the Deenanath Mangeshkar Lifetime Award 2019 recently.
(A) Javed Akhtar
(B) Vishal Bhardwaj
(C) Anurag Kashyap
(D) Salim Khan

73. Which space agency has recorded the first “marsquake,” quake on the mars due to volcanic eruptions or land tides?
(A) JAXA (Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency)
(B) NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration)
(C) ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation)
(D) Chines Space Agency

74. Name the third edition of bilateral maritime exercise between Australia and India that was held in Visakhapatnam.
(A) Vajra Prahar
(B) Cobra Gold
(C) Ausindex 19
(D) Ausind 19

75. Holkhomang Haokip, who passed away recently, was a ____________?
(A) Writer
(B) Producer
(C) Football player
(D) Politician

76. Name the Howitzers guns inducted into Indian Army recently.
(A) Dhanush
(B) Panter
(C) M102 howitzer
(D) BL 9.2-inch howitzer

77. Who was the first Indian President to visit Croatia?
(A) Abdul Kalam
(B) Pratibha Patil
(C) Pranab Mukherjee
(D) Ram Nath Kovind

78. Which Island was notified as Island Protection Zone (IPZ) 2019 by Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently?
(A) Andaman and Nicobar Island
(B) Kurumgad Island
(C) Khanderi Island
(D) Worli Island

79. Name the organization, which released the report on food crises titled ‘Global Report on Food Crises’ annually.
(A) International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI)
(B) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
(C) Food Corporation of India (FCI)
(D) Food Security Information Network (FSIN)

80. Which is the happiest country as per the 2019 World Happiness Index?
(A) Finland
(B) Denmark
(C) Norway
(D) Sweden

81. The Headquarters of Asian Development Bank is situated in
(A) Manila, Philippines
(B) Jakarta, Indonesia
(C) Colombo, Sri Lanka
(D) Honoi, Vietnam

82. The ‘Golden Peacock’ Award is given for excellence in
(A) Corporate Social Responsibility
(B) Energy Savings
(C) Literature
(D) Corporate Governance

83. Which planet is known as Red Planet?
(A) Venus
(B) Mercury
(C) Mars
(D) Neptune

84. What is Psephology?
(A) Statistical study of elections, voting, etc.
(B) Study of rainfall pattern
(C) Study of gene disorder
(D) Study of female prisoners

85. The Global Teacher Award, 2019 was awarded to a teacher in:
(A) South Korea
(B) Japan
(C) Canada
(D) Kenya

86. Which state in India is the first State to achieve 100 percent sanitation coverage?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur

87. The book titled ‘God Save the Honourable Supreme Court’ was authored by:
(A) Soli Sorabjee
(B) Fali S. Nariman
(C) K.K. Venugopal
(D) Justice Katju

88. The book titled ‘Anita Gets Bail’ was authored by:
(A) Amitab Ghosh
(B) Kiran Bedi
(C) Indira Jaisingh
(D) Arun Shourie

89. The first Indian Athlete to qualify for Olympics 2020 is:
(A) K.T. Irfan
(B) Jinson Johnson
(C) Tintu Lukka
(D) Sunita Rani

90. The South Asian nation that has won the SAFF Women’s Championship for five times successively is:
(A) Nepal
(B) India
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Bhutan

CLAT 2019 QUESTION PAPER – CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES – SECTION – MATHEMATICS

91. The Municipality of a town increases water tax by 20 Percent and water consumption decreased by 20 Percent. Then the percentage of increase or decrease in the monthly expenditure is:
(A) 4 Percent increase
(B) 4 Percent decrease
(C) 5 Percent increase
(D) 5 Percent decrease

92. A child was born on 13th January 1976 which was a Tuesday. What day of the week will be the child’s birth day in the year 1986?
(A) Sunday
(B) Friday
(C) Saturday
(D) Monday

93. The perimeter of a rectangle is 60 cms. If its length is twice its breadth, then its area is:
(A) 200 square cms
(B) 180 square cms
(C) 160 square cms
(D) 220 square cms

94. A tree grows at the rate of 1/5th of its height annually. By how much height will it grow after 2 years, if its present height is 75 cms?
(A) 108 cms
(B) 90 cms
(C) 144 cms
(D) 112 cms

95. A train 600 meters long is running at a speed of 90 kms/hr. If it crosses a tunnel in one minute, then the length of the tunnel is:
(A) 500 meters
(B) 550 meters
(C) 600 meters
(D) 900 meters

96. A book seller sold a box of 10 pencils for Rs. 80 and incurred a loss. Had he sold it for Rs. 98, his gain would have been twice the loss he incurred earlier. The cost price of the box of pencils is:
(A) Rs. 84
(B) Rs. 86
(C) Rs. 88
(D) Rs. 90

97. In a 100 meters race, A beats B by 20 meters B beats C by 5 meters. In the same race, A beats C by:
(A) 26 meters
(B) 25 meters
(C) 24 meters
(D) 22 meters

98. Beena got married 8 years ago. Today, her age is 11/4 times her age at the time of marriage. If her daughter’s age is 1/10 times her age, then her daughter’s age is:
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 2 years

99. A clock gains 2 minutes every hour. Then the angle traversed by the second hand in one minute is:
(A) 360 Degrees
(B) 370 Degrees
(C) 390 Degrees
(D) 372 Degrees

100. 80 of students of a class took Statistics and 45 Percent took Mathematics. If each student took Statistics or Mathematics and 40 took both, the total number of students in the class was:
(A) 160
(B) 180
(C) 200
(D) 225

101. Kiran’s brother is 5 years older to her. Her father was 30 years old when Kiran’s sister was born, while her mother was 28 years old when Kiran was born. If Kiran’s sister was 2 years old when her brother was born, what was the age of their father when Kiran’s brother was born?
(A) 32
(B) 34
(C) 37
(D) 30

102. If Second Saturday and Sunday of every month is a holiday, then the total number of working days in a month of 31 days beginning with a Wednesday will be
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 25
(D) 26

103. A mess contractor can either serve 450 students with the meal that he prepares or can cater to 270 cops with the same meal. If 300 students have already eaten in the mess, how many cops can be fed with the remaining meal?
(A) 20
(B) 45
(C) 90
(D) 180

104. A car driver increases the average speed of his car by 3 km/hr every hour. The total distance travelled in 7 hours if the distance covered in first hour was 30 km, is
(A) 266 km
(B) 273 km
(C) 280 km
(D) 287 km

105. A grocer mixes coffee powder of 2 types, one of which is priced at Rs. 60 and the other at Rs. 90. What should be the ratio of combining the two, to sell the blended mix coffee powder of the two types at Rs. 80?
(A) 2:1
(B) 2:3
(C) 1:2
(D) 3:2

106. The smallest number that should be subtracted from 2085, so that the new number is completely divisible by 23 is
(A) 9
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 19

107. A tank is connected to three pipes – Pipe A, B and C. Pipe A can fill the tank in 6 hours, B can fill the tank in 8 hours and Pipe C can empty the full tank in 12 hours. How much time will it take to fill the tank completely if all three pipes are working together?
(A) 4 hours
(B) 4 hours 48 minutes
(C) 5 hours
(D) 5 hours 20 minutes

108. Naresh bought a bicycle each for his two sons, each bicycle priced at Rs. 3500. If the first bicycle is sold at a profit of 5 Percent, the how much should the other bicycle be sold for, to gain a total of 20 Percent on both?
(A) 15 Percent
(B) 10 Percent
(C) 25 Percent
(D) 35 Percent

109. An employee of an organization invests a total of Rs 25,400 in two different schemes X and Y at a simple interest rate of 18 Percent per annum and 10 Percent per annum respectively. If a total of Rs. 6460 has been earned as simple interest in 2 years, what amount was invested in Scheme Y?
(A) Rs. 8,625
(B) Rs. 16,775
(C) Rs. 12,240
(D) Rs. 10,930

110. The difference between Simple Interest and Compound Interest on Rs. 500 for 1 year at 10 Percent per annum, reckoned half yearly is
(A) Rs. 1
(B) Rs. 1.25
(C) Rs. 1.5
(D) Rs. 2

CLAT 2019 QUESTION PAPER – CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES – SECTION – LEGAL APTITUDE

This section consists of fifty (50) questions. Each question consists of legal principle(s) (hereinafter referred to as ‘principle’) and facts. Such proposition may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this section. Principles have to be applied to the given facts to arrive at the most reasonable conclusion. Only one of the alternatives, i.e., (A), (B), (C), or
(D) is the most reasonable conclusion.

In other words, in answering the following questions, you must not rely on any principle except the principles that are given herein below for every question. Further you must not assume any facts other than those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your ability in legal aptitude, study of law, research aptitude and problem solving ability even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion’ arrived at may be absurd or unacceptable for any other reason.

111. Principle: Acceptance of proposal must be the exact mirror image of the proposal.
Facts: ‘A’ made a proposal to ‘B’ to sell a chair for Rs. 500. ‘B’ is desirous of buying the said chair for Rs. 400.
(A) B has accepted the proposal of A.
(B) B has not accepted the proposal of A.
(C) It is not clear if B has accepted the proposal of A.
(D) It is not clear whether A made a proposal to B.

112. Principle: An agreement with a boy below the age of eighteen years is not enforceable by law.
Facts: A man entered into an agreement with a girl of seventeen years of age.
(A) The agreement is enforceable by law.
(B) The agreement is not enforceable by law.
(C) The agreement is enforceable by the girl.
(D) No inference can be drawn.

113. Principle: Sale of liquor is illegal. All agreements relating to prohibited items do not exist in the eyes of law.
Facts: ‘A’ entered into an agreement with ‘B’ for the sale of liquor. ‘A’ failed to supply the agreed quantity of liquor to B.
(A) B can bring a legal action against A.
(B) B cannot bring any legal action against A.
(C) A can bring a legal action against B.
(D) A and B can initiate appropriate legal proceeding against each other.

114. Principle: The communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.
Facts: ‘A’ sent a letter making a proposal to ‘B’ to purchase the house of B.
(A) The communication of proposal is complete when A sent the letter.
(B) The communication of proposal is complete when B’s wife received it.
(C) The communication of proposal is complete when B’s wife handed over the letter to B.
(D) The communication of proposal is complete when B reads the letter.

115. Principle: An agreement may be entered into orally, in writing, or by conduct.
Facts: ‘A’ went to the shop of ‘B’ and picked a tooth brush and gave a cheque of Rupees twenty to B and left the shop.
(A) A entered into an agreement with B.
(B) A did not enter into an agreement with B.
(C) Payment of tooth brush cannot be made through a cheque.
(D) A should have carried a currency note of Rupees twenty to make the payment.

116. Principle: Property consists of right to possess, right to use, right to alienate and right to exclude others. Sale is complete when property gets transferred from the seller to the buyer.
Facts: ‘A’ sold his car to ‘B’ B requested A to keep the car in his care on behalf B for one month. A agreed.
(A) Sale of car is complete.
(B) Sale of car is not complete.
(C) Sale will be completed when B keeps the car in his own care.
(D) Sale will be automatically completed after the expiry of one month.

117. Principle: A person, who is usually mad, but occasionally not mad, may make a contract when he is not mad.
Facts: ‘A’ generally remains in the state of madness and rarely becomes capable of understanding anything.
(A) A can make a contract.
(B) A can never make a contract.
(C) A can make a contract at any time whenever he pleases.
(D) A can make a contract only for his own benefit.

118. Principle: An agreement without free consent can be enforced only at the option of the party whose consent was not free.
Facts: A obtains the consent of B to enter into an agreement by putting a gun on the head of B’s girl friend.
(A) B can enforce the agreement.
(B) B cannot enforce the agreement.
(C) A can enforce the agreement.
(D) Neither A nor B can enforce the agreement.

119. Principle: Where one of the parties to a contract was in position to dominate the decision of the other party, the contract is enforceable only at the option of the party who was in a position to dominate decision of the other party.
Facts: A doctor asked his patient to make a payment of Rs. 10,00,000/- (Ten Lac Only) for treatment of his fever. The patient paid an amount of Rs. 5,00,000/- (Five Lac Only) and promised to pay the remaining amount after the treatment. After treatment the patient recovered from fever. The doctor demanded the remaining amount from the patient. The patient refused to pay.
(A) The contract is enforceable against the doctor.
(B) The contract is enforceable against the patient.
(C) The contract is not enforceable.
(D) The contract is not enforceable against the patient.

120. Principle: When, at the desire one person, any other person has done or abstained from doing something, such act or abstinence or promise is called a consideration for the promise.
Facts: X, the uncle of Y, made a promise to pay him an amount of Rs. 1,00,000/- as reward if Y quits smoking and drinking within one year. Y quit smoking and drinking within six months.
(A) Consideration has moved from the side of X.
(B) Consideration has moved from the side of Y.
(C) No consideration has moved from the side of Y.
(D) Quitting smoking and drinking cannot be a consideration.

121. Principle: Law never enforces an impossible promise.
Facts: ‘A’ made a promise to ‘B’ to discover treasure by magic.
(A) Law will enforce the promise.
(B) Law will not enforce the promise.
(C) Law will enforce the promise only at the option of A.
(D) Law will enforce the promise only at the option of B.

122. Principle: When a person who has made a promise to another person to do something does not fulfill his promise, another person becomes entitled to receive, from the person who did not fulfill his promise, compensation in the form of money.
Facts: X made a promise to Y to repair his car engine. Y made the payment for repair. After the repair, Y went for a drive in the same car. While driving the car, Y met with an accident due to bursting of the tyre.
(A) X will be entitled to receive compensation from Y in the form of money
(B) Y will be entitled to receive compensation from X in the form of money
(C) X will not be entitled to receive compensation
(D) Y will not be entitled to receive compensation from X

123. Principle: Whoever takes away any moveable thing from the land of any person without that person’s consent is said to commit theft.
Facts: During his visit to the home of C, A asks B, the son of C, to accompany A to a forest. Neither A nor B inform C in this regard. B accompanies A to the forest.
(A) A has committed theft.
(B) A has not committed theft.
(C) A has committed theft as soon as he entered the home of C.
(D) A has not committed theft till B did not accompany him.

124. Principle: Nothing is an offence if it is done in good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding greater harm or damage to person or property.
Facts: A jumps into a swimming pool to save a boy from drowning. While pulling the boy from water A was hit by C. A left the boy in the water and attacked C. The boy died in the water.
(A) A has not committed the offence of killing the boy.
(B) A has committed the offence of killing the boy.
(C) The boy has committed the offence of suicide.
(D) The boy has committed the offence of drowning.

125. Principle: Causing of an effect partly by an act and partly by an omission is an offence.
Facts: A did not provide any food to his daughter D. He also confined D in a room. Consequently, D died.
(A) A committed the offence of not providing food to D.
(B) A committed the offence of confining D.
(C) A committed the offence of killing D.
(D) A committed no offence.

126. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence. Nothing is an offence which is done in madness.
Facts: A, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill B. B to save his life kills A.
(A) A has committed the offence of attempt to murder
(B) A has committed an offence of being mad
(C) B has committed an offence
(D) B has not committed an offence

127. Principle: A man is guilty of not only for what he actually does but also for the consequences of his doing.
Facts: A wanted to kill the animal of B. He saw B standing with his animal and fired a gun shot at the animal. The gun shot killed B.
(A) A is guilty of killing B.
(B) A is not guilty of killing B.
(C) B is guilty of standing with the animal.
(D) A did not know that the gun shot will kill B.

128. Principle: Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the decision of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud.
Facts: A sells to B (A’s daughter who is a minor) a horse which A knows to be unsound. A says nothing to B about the unsoundness of the horse.
(A) A has committed fraud
(B) A has committed no fraud
(C) There cannot be a contract between a father and daughter
(D) The daughter did not ask therefore the father did not tell, hence no fraud

129. Principle: Whoever attempts to commit the offence of cheating, commits an offence.
Facts: A with an intention to defraud B, obtains from him an amount of Rs. 500.
(A) A has committed no offence
(B) A has committed the offence of cheating
(C) A has attempted to commit the offence of cheating
(D) A has attempted to commit and has committed the offence of cheating

130. Principle: Whoever by words publishes any imputation concerning any person is said to defame that person.
Facts: During a marriage ceremony, A circulated a pamphlet saying sister of the bride ‘S’ is a thief, she has stolen the shoes of the bridegroom.
(A) A defamed S
(B) A did not defame S
(C) A defamed the bridegroom
(D) A defamed the bride

131. Principle: An employer is liable for an injury caused to an employee in the course of the employment.
Facts: ‘A’ and ‘B’ were working in a factory as unskilled laborers. A was carrying a basket of stones on his head. B was sitting on the ground. When A crossed B, all of a sudden a stone fell down from the basket and hit B on his head. B died instantaneously.
(A) The employer will be liable
(B) The employer will not be liable
(C) A will be liable
(D) Both employer and A will be liable

132. Principle: Damages the money recompense, as far as money can do, for the loss suffered by a person.
Facts: A, an Indian citizen, having a right to vote, was not allowed to cast his vote on the polling booth, by the returning officer. Name of A was mentioned in the voter’s list. A has also reported at the polling booth in time. However, the candidate in whose favor A would have cast his vote won the election. A filed a suit claiming damages.
(A) A will be entitled to damages
(B) A will not be entitled to damages
(C) A will be entitled to only nominal damages
(D) A will be entitled to exemplary damages

133. Principle: When a party to a contract has refused to perform, or disabled himself from performing, his promise in its entirety, the other party shall not put an end to the contract.
Facts: A engaged B on April 12 to enter his service on June 1, but on May 11, A wrote to B that his services would not be needed. On May 22, B joined C for employment.
(A) B cannot put the contract to an end.
(B) B can put the contract to an end.
(C) C can put his contract with B to an end.
(D) A must pay damages to B.

134. Principle: Everyone shall be permitted to take advantage of his own wrong.
Facts: A legatee was heavily drunk and driving his car at a speed of 100 Km/per hour in a crowded market. All of a sudden his testator came on the road. There were other people on the road at that time. The car driven by legatee hit the testator and four other persons. All the five persons hit by the car died.
(A) The legatee can take the benefit under the will
(B) The legatee cannot take the benefit under the will
(C) The legatee will be punished
(D) The property of the testator will go to his heirs

135. Principle: Property can be transferred only by a living person to another living person.
Facts: ‘A’ transfers property of which he is the owner in favor of the unborn child of B.
(A) Property has been transferred to the unborn child
(B) Property has been transferred to B
(C) Property has not been transferred to the unborn child
(D) Property will be transferred to the unborn child after his birth

136. Principle: An interest created, dependent upon a condition fails, if the fulfillment of the condition is impossible.
Facts: A promises to pay Rs. Ten Lakh to B on condition that he shall marry A’s daughter C. At the date on which A gave Rs. Ten Lac to B, C was dead.
(A) B’s interest fails
(B) B’s interest fails because of immorality
(C) B’s interest fails because of prohibition by law
(D) B’s interest does not fail

137. Principle: A condition must be complied with after the happening of the event to which such a condition is attached.
Facts: A promises to pay Rs. 5,000 to B on the condition that he shall marry with the consent of C, D and E. B marries without the consent of C, D and E, but obtains their consent after the marriage.
(A) B has fulfilled the condition
(B) B has not fulfilled the condition
(C) The condition is illegal
(D) B must divorce his wife

138. Principle: A condition must be complied in order to claim the benefit of an agreement.
Facts: A agrees to transfer a farm to B, if B shall not go to England within three years after the date of the agreement, his interest in the farm shall cease. B does not go to England within the term prescribed.
(A) B’s interest in the farm continues
(B) B’s interest in the farm does not continue
(C) B has a fundamental right to go to England or not to go to England and hence the condition is illegal
(D) The agreement between A and B is void

139. Principle: Existence of all the alleged facts is relevant whether they occurred at the same time and place or at different times and places.
Facts: A, a citizen of England, is accused of committing murder of B in India by taking part in a conspiracy hatched in England.
(A) The facts that A accused of commission of murder and of conspiracy are relevant facts
(B) Only the fact that A is accused of committing murder of B is relevant
(C) Only the fact that A is accused of conspiracy hatched in England is relevant
(D) A citizen of England cannot be tried in India

140. Principle: One who asserts must prove.
Facts: A desires a Court to give judgment that B, C and D shall be punished for a crime which A says B, C and D have committed.
(A) A must prove that B, C and D were present at the place of crime
(B) A must prove that B, C and D have committed the crime
(C) B, C and D must prove that they have not committed the crime
(D) Police must prove that B, C and D have committed the crime

141. Principle: Foreign judgment binds the parties and is conclusive unless it is obtained by fraud.
Facts: A obtains judgment from US court by producing fake documents.
(A) New Suit can be filed in India on the same facts
(B) Judgment can be enforced in US
(C) Judgment can be enforced in India
(D) New suit can not be filed in India on same facts

142. Principle: Decision of Court is Null and Void, if it is given by court which does not have jurisdiction over the subject matter.
Facts: A obtains decision from a court which did not have jurisdiction to deal with the subject matter.
(A) Decision can be enforced because both the parties were present
(B) Decision cannot be enforced because decision is null and void
(C) Decision can be enforced because it is given a court
(D) Decision can be enforced

143. Principle: Civil Suit can be filed where defendant resides or carries on business or where cause of action arises.
Facts: ‘A’ carries on business in Gurgaon, ‘B’ carries on Business in Mumbai. ‘B’ through his agent in Gurgaon purchases goods in Gurgaon and takes delivery through agent in Gurgaon. Where Civil Suit for payment of price can be filed by ‘A’?
(A) Gurgaon only where cause of action arises
(B) At Mumbai where B carries on Business
(C) At either of the places i.e. Mumbai or Gurgaon
(D) Anywhere in India

144. Principle: Civil Suit can be filed where defendant resides or carries on business or where cause of action arises.
Facts: An agreement is signed and executed in New Delhi between A and B for supply of goods wherein B is to supply goods to be delivered at New Delhi to client of A. A carries on business at Haryana and B carries on Business in UP. Civil suit by ‘B’ for payment of consideration can be filed against ‘A’ at
(A) Only at New Delhi, where cause of action arises
(B) Only at Haryana where ‘A’ carries on business
(C) Only at UP where ‘B’ carries on business
(D) At Haryana or at New Delhi

145. Principle: No court can execute the decisions unless it is having territorial jurisdiction over the property or the person against whom decision is to be executed. The Court which gave the decision can transfer the matter to the court which has the territorial jurisdiction over the person or property.
Facts: A decision is given by court at New Delhi on a contractual matter against X in a suit between X and Y. X is resident of Maharashtra and he has properties in Maharashtra and Gujarat.
(A) New Delhi court can transfer the proceedings to Court at Maharashtra only
(B) New Delhi court can execute the decision because it had the jurisdiction to decide the matter so it can execute also
(C) New Delhi court can transfer the proceedings to court at Gujarat only
(D) New Delhi court can transfer the proceedings to either of the courts i.e. Maharashtra or Gujarat

146. Principle: Nothing is an offence by reason of any harm it may cause to another person, if it is done in good faith and for the benefit of that person even without that person’s consent.
Facts: A is attacked by a Lion and Lion drags him while he is crying for help. B, a passer-by picks up A’s gun in good faith and fires at Lion which injures A. B has never used the gun before.
(A) B is liable for the injury because he knew that he can injure A as he has never used any gun before
(B) B is not liable as he has done the act in good faith
(C) B is liable because he has not taken A’s consent before firing
(D) B is liable because he has used A’s gun without his consent

147. Principle: Nothing is an offence if it is done under intoxication and the person committing the offence was incapable to understand the nature of the Act. Intoxication should be without knowledge or against the will of the person.
Facts: A, B and C were having a party in Bar where A persuaded B and C to take alcoholic drinks. On the persistent persuasion B and C also consumed alcohol along with A. B and C had never consumed alcohol before. After intoxication, there was some argument between B and C where C pushed B with full force causing serious injury to B.
(A) C is liable
(B) C is not liable because he was intoxicated
(C) A is liable because A persuaded them to consume alcohol whereas they had never consumed alcohol
(D) A and C both are liable

148. Principle: Everyone has the right of private defence to defend his body and property by use of reasonable force unless that person had time to have recourse to protection of public authorities.
Facts: X receives information at 5.00 pm that Y along with few friends is planning to burn his crop at midnight which is ready to be harvested. He does not inform the village Police Station which was just one kilometre away. He gathers his family members and directs them to collect some weapons in the form of swords and lathis to protect his field/crop. At around 11.00 pm Y and his aides attack the crop and a severe fight ensues wherein Y is seriously injured.
(A) X is not liable as he was exercising his right of private defence
(B) X and his family are not liable for the injuries caused as they were exercising the right of private defence
(C) X is liable
(D) X and his family is liable as they have not informed the police

149. Principle: Anyone who induces or attempts to induce a voter to vote in a particular manner on the ground that the voter will face divine displeasure, shall be guilty of offence of interfering with free exercise of right to vote.
Facts: During election campaign period one candidate X told the voters that if they do not vote for her, voters will be cursed because the election candidate is the God’s own child and those who do not vote for her, they will not be liked by God.
(A) X has committed an offence
(B) X has not committed an offence because she only narrated what she felt
(C) X has not committed an offence because she has freedom of speech and expression
(D) X has not committed an offence because she did not compel anyone to vote for her

150. Principle: Doing of an act which causes common injury, danger or annoyance to public or which is likely to cause such injury or annoyance is Public nuisance. A common nuisance is not excused because it causes some nuisance or advantage.
Facts: ‘A’ a farmer having large farmlands burns crop residue (stubble) on his fields after harvesting the crop to make the field ready for next crop as this is the easy, fast and convenient method of making the field ready for next crop. His farmlands are adjoining a densely inhabited residential area and people pass through the smoke while travelling on the road adjoining his farmlands. The smoke caused by fire also enters the houses in the colony
(A) A has not committed any offence since he does not cause any specific injury to any specific person
(B) A has not committed any offence because he does not gain any advantage from persons living in the vicinity
(C) A has committed public nuisance
(D) A has not committed any offence because the alleged acts are done on the fields owned and used by him and acts are done without any intention to cause harm.

151. Principle: Death caused by rash or negligent act of a person is an offence.
Facts: X was driving his SUV car in a lonely road leading to a forest at 160 km per hour. Suddenly, someone appears from the forest on the road and in the resultant accident, the car hits the commuter causing his death.
(A) X is not guilty of an offence as the accident has occurred on a lonely road
(B) X is not guilty because there was no intention to kill the deceased
(C) X is guilty of an offence death by rash or negligent act
(D) X is not guilty because he was also injured in the accident

152. Principle: Whoever causes death by rash or negligent act commits an offence.
Facts: X is having a house on the roadside which is also having a street on the back of the house. He has a lawn on the back of his house where he has built a toilet. To prevent the intruders from entering his house, he got the fence charged with a high voltage live electric wire. Z was passing through the street at the backyard of the house of X and sat down to take rest near the fence. While getting up, his hands came in contact with the fence which was connected to high voltage electric wire causing his death.
(A) X has not committed any offence because he has right to prevent trespass
(B) X has committed an offence of causing death by rash and negligent act
(C) X has committed no offence because he does not have any enmity with X
(D) X has committed an offence of Murder

153. Principle: Killing is not murder, if it is committed in a sudden fight without pre-meditation in a heat of passion upon a sudden quarrel.
Facts: X and Y were buying liquor from a liquor shop at 7 pm. Y abused X and there was quarrel between them. X told Y that he will not spare him and Y shouted that his house is adjoining the shop only and if X had the guts, he can come anytime. X went back to his shop which was nearby, procured a knife and went to Y’s residence at 9 pm and stabbed him to death.
(A) X has committed murder
(B) X has not committed an offence of murder since it was committed in sudden fight in a heat of passion
(C) X has not committed murder of Y because he had no enmity with Y
(D) X has committed no offence

154. Principle: Use of criminal force intentionally knowing that it would cause or is likely to cause injury or annoyance to the person against whom force is used, is an offence.
Facts: X, a renowned social worker who had launched a movement for liberation of women, pulls up a Muslim women’s veil in public in good faith without her consent causing annoyance to her.
(A) X is a renowned social worker and he has committed no offence because his motive was good
(B) X acted in good faith to liberate her from clutches of tradition and has hence has committed no offence
(C) X has done the act in public and not in secrecy therefore had not committed any offence
(D) X has committed an offence by use of criminal force

155. Principle: Inducing any animal to move or to change its motion and thereby intentionally causing fear of injury or annoyance to others by such act, is an offence of use of criminal force.
Facts: X incites his dog to chase and run after his neighbour Y, to teach Y to stay away from him. The act is done without neighbour’ consent and against his will
(A) X has committed no offence
(B) X has committed no offence because no harm is caused to Y
(C) X has committed no offence because he intention only to put fear in the mind of Y
(D) X has committed an offence of use of criminal force

156. Principle: A spouse is not permitted to put in evidence in any court, any communication during marriage between the spouses without the consent of the person who made the communication.
Facts: X who is the wife of Y saw her husband (Y) coming out of the neighbour’s house at 6.00 am in the morning. Y told his wife X that he has murdered the neighbour and handed over the jewellery of that neighbour to his wife.
(A) X is allowed to appear as a witness in court to depose that her husband has told her that he committed a murder
(B) X is not allowed to appear as a witness at all in any court
(C) X is not allowed to appear as a witness to depose what was told by the husband to her, however, she can depose what she saw
(D) X is an independent woman and she can do whatever she wants

157. Principle: Oral evidence must always be direct i.e. of the person who says he saw the event and hearsay evidence is no evidence.
Facts: X was told by Y (whom X trusts) that Z has murdered A
(A) Statement of X is admissible
(B) Statement of X is not admissible because he has not seen Z murdering A
(C) Statement of X is admissible because he trusts Y and Y never tells a lie
(D) Statement of X is admissible because he is a renowned social activist and has a huge reputation to fight for the truth

158. Principle: Terms of any written contract can be proved by producing the written contract only and oral evidence is excluded.
Facts: A gives B receipt for money paid by B. Oral evidence is offered to prove payment.
(A) Oral evidence to prove payment is allowed
(B) Oral evidence to prove payment is not allowed
(C) Oral evidence is always allowed to prove all facts
(D) Oral evidence is generally disallowed

159. Principle: Employer is liable for the injury caused to the employee in the course of his employment.
Facts: X organized a party and hired a caterer. During the party, generator set went out of order and he requested one employee of caterer i.e. Y to bring the mechanic on his vehicle and promised to pay 1000 for the same to Y. Y met with an accident while going to fetch the mechanic and he seeks compensation.
(A) X is liable as Y was working in the course of employment offered by X
(B) X is not liable as Y is not his employee
(C) X is liable because party was organized by him
(D) Caterer is liable as Y is his employee

160. Principle: Master is liable for the acts of his servant done in the course of his duties.
Facts: X hired an employee Y in his construction business. Y was the property in-charge who received construction material and gave receipts for the material received by him. Z claimed payment for cement supplied to X which was duly received by Y. X denied the payment on the ground that he has only received half of the material and the balance was mis-utilized by the employee Y.
(A) X is liable for the entire amount
(B) X is liable for the part amount only i.e. for payment of the cost of half of the material
(C) X is not liable for the misconduct/embezzlement of his employee
(D) Z can claim the balance payment only from Y

CLAT 2019 QUESTION PAPER – CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES – SECTION – LOGICAL REASONING

161. If in English Alphabet ‘e’ and every alternate letter from ‘e’ onwards is written in Capitals, then how will sixth month from March will be coded
(A) SEPTEmbER
(B) SEptEMbEr
(C) SepTeMber
(D) SEPtEmbER

162. If in a certain code, ‘Clever; is written as ‘XOVEVI’, then ‘Smart’ would written as
(A) HZNGI
(B) HNZIG
(C) GHNGI
(D) GIHZN

163. Fill in the blank :
Q4RT, ___________ , QRT6, QR7T, Q8RT
(A) QTR7
(B) QR5T
(C) RQ9T
(D) TRQ6

164. Fill in the blank :
257, 291, ________, 365, 405
(A) 313
(B) 322
(C) 327
(D) 343

165. Manoj walks a distance of 5 meters towards North, then he turns to east and walks a distance of 10 meters. Then he turns to his right and covers a distance of 15 meters. He then turns to his left and covers a distance of 15 meters. Which direction is he facing now?
(A) North
(B) East
(C) West
(D) South

166. A man introduces a girl as the daughter of the sister of his father. How the girl is related to the man
(A) Daughter
(B) Niece
(C) Grand daughter
(D) Cousin
Read the following information for questions 167 to 170 and chose the most appropriate option:
P and Q are good in driving Motor cycle and Jeep. R and P are good in driving Jeep and Lorry. R, S and T are good in driving Motor Cycle and Lorry. T and R are good in driving Bus and Tempo. S and Q are good in driving Bus and Jeep.

167. Who is good in driving motorcycle, lorry and tempo?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) T
(D) S

168. Who is good in driving motor Cycle, Jeep and Lorry but not bus?
(A) R
(B) S
(C) P
(D) T

169. Who is good in driving Tempo, Motor Cycle, Lorry but not Jeep?
(A) S
(B) T
(C) R
(D) Q

170. Who is good in driving all the vehicles?
(A) R
(B) P
(C) S
(D) T

171. In a bag there are some gold coins. In another bag there are 1/3rd extra gold coins as compared to first bag. If the difference in the number of gold coins in first and second bag is 5, then how many coins are there in the first bag?
(A) 7
(B) 9
(C) 13
(D) 15

CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES – Directions – Examine the following numbers and identify the next number:

172. 53, 50, 45, 38, 29, _____
(A) 11
(B) 17
(C) 18
(D) 21

173. 20, 30, 42, 56, 72, ____
(A) 82
(B) 90
(C) 92
(D) 94

174. The words in the bottom row are related in the same way as the words in the top row. Fill in the blank.
Rose, Flower, Plant Flat, House, ……
(A) City
(B) Tent
(C) Building
(D) Village

175. If Ocean: Waves, then Desert : ______
(A) Water
(B) Sand
(C) Brave
(D) Sand dunes

176. If 1 x 7 = 8, 2 x 7 = 16, 3 x 7 = 24, 4 x 7 = 32, then what is value of 9 x 7?
(A) 63
(B) 72
(C) 81
(D) 90

177. Find the odd one out :
Onlookers, Theatre goers, Queue, Spectators
(A) Onlookers
(B) Theatre goers
(C) Queue
(D) Spectators

178. Find the odd one out :
Heart, Lungs, Kidney, Skin, Liver
(A) Skin
(B) Lungs
(C) Heart
(D) Kidney

179. Find the odd-man out:
(A) http://www.scholar.google.com
(B) http://www.manupatra.com
(C) http://www.lexisnexis.com
(D) http://www.westlawindia.com

180. Find the odd one out:
Symphony, Orchestra, Guitar, Mob
(A) Guitar
(B) Orchestra
(C) Mob
(D) Symphony

CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES –  Instructions for Question 181 to Question 185: Read the information given below to answer the questions.

(i) Mohan’s reading schedule consists of reading only subject on a given day of the week.
(ii) The subjects are Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, Biology, and Social Science.
(iii) Monday to Saturday are reading days including one day only for play. Sunday is a complete holiday for Mohan.
(iv) Mathematics day is neither on the first day nor on the last day but earlier than the Chemistry day.
(v) Biology day is on the immediate next day of Chemistry day.
(vi) Physics day is on the immediate previous day of the play day.
(vii) Biology day and Social Science day have a gap of two days between them.
(viii) Social Science day is on the immediate next day of the play day.

181. Which of the following day is the play day?
(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday

182. Physics day and Biology day have a gap of how many days between them?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

183. Which day is Social Science day?
(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday

184. Which day is Mathematics day?
(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday

185. Which of the following is the correct statement?
(A) Biology day is after Chemistry day
(B) Physics day is on Wednesday
(C) Play day is on Monday
(D) Chemistry day is earlier than Physics day

CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES – Instructions for Question 186 to Question 190: Read the information given below to answer the questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H want to have a dinner on a round table and they have worked out the following seating arrangements.
(a) A will sit beside C.
(b) H will sit beside A.
(c) C will sit beside E.
(d) F will sit beside H.
(e) E will sit beside G.
(f) D will sit beside F.
(g) G will sit beside B.
(h) B will sit beside D.

186. Which of the following is wrong?
(A) A will be to the immediate right of C
(B) D will be to the immediate left of B
(C) E will be to the immediate right of A
(D) F will be to the immediate left of D

187. Which of the following is correct?
(A) B will be to the immediate left of D
(B) H will be to the immediate right of A
(C) C will be to the immediate right of F
(D) B will be to the immediate left of H

188. A and F will become neighbours if:
(A) B agrees to change her sitting position
(B) C agrees to change her sitting position
(C) G agrees to change her sitting position
(D) H agrees to change her sitting position

189. During sitting:
(A) A will be directly facing C
(B) B will be directly facing C
(C) A will be directly facing B
(D) B will be directly facing D

190. H will be sitting between:
(A) C and B
(B) A and F
(C) D and C
(D) E and G

CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES –  Instructions for Question 191 to Question 193: Choose the set of three statements where the third statement can be logically derived from the preceding two.

191. Statements:
1. Some students love reading.
2. Some adults do not love reading.
3. Some students are not adult.
4. Some students are adult.
5. No reading lover is an adult.
6. Some men do not love reading.
The set of statements is:
(A) 1, 3, 4
(B) 1, 5, 3
(C) 1, 2, 4
(D) 6, 2, 4

192. Statements:
1. All boys need books.
2. All girls need books.
3. Punjabis are girls.
4. Some Punjabis need book.
5. All boys are girls.
6. Some boys are Punjabis.

The set of statements is:
(A) 5, 4, 1
(B) 2, 5, 3
(C) 6, 5, 3
(D) 5, 2, 1

193. Statements:
1. All human beings need education.
2. All teachers need training.
3. Education is provided by the teachers.
4. X is a teacher.
5. X needs training.
6. Students are future of a nation.
The set of statements is:
(A) 1, 2, 5
(B) 2, 3, 4
(C) 2, 4, 5
(D) 4, 5, 6

CLAT MOCK TEST SERIES – Instructions for Question 194 to Question 196 : Each of the following questions has a main statement followed by four statements: 1, 2, 3, 4. Choose the ordered pair of statements where the first statement implies the second, and the two statements are logically consistent with the main statement.

194. Main statement: Only if the teaching standard is destroyed, will examination result be poor.
1. Examination result is poor.
2. Teaching standard is not destroyed.
3. Examination result is not poor.
4. Teaching standard is destroyed.
The ordered pair of statements is:
(A) 2, 3
(B) 2, 4
(C) 1, 3
(D) 1, 2

195. Main statement: The computer will not work if operating system fails.
1. Operating system fails.
2. Operating system does not fail.
3. The computer does not work.
4. The computer works.
The ordered pair of statements is:
(A) 2, 1
(B) 2, 3
(C) 1, 4
(D) 4, 2

196. Main statement: Either X or Y will take the only computer in the room.
1. X took the computer.
2. Y did not take the computer.
3. X did not take the computer.
4. Y took the computer.
The ordered pair of statements is:
(A) 3, 1
(B) 1, 3
(C) 4, 3
(D) 1, 2

197. ‘All men are mortal and Victoria is a woman and hence Victoria is mortal’. This statement is:
(A) Logically Valid
(B) Logically Invalid
(C) Logically True
(D) Logically False

198. All men are chairs. John Doe is a man. In logical language, therefore:
(A) John Doe is a chair
(B) John Doe is a human being and therefore he cannot be a chair
(C) A man cannot be a chair in any case
(D) Chairs can be men

199. Identify the missing number:
1 and 3, 4 and 6, 7 and 9, …… and 12
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13

200. Cobra: Snake :: Greyhound : ____________
(A) Eagle
(B) Black Mamba
(C) Python
(D) Dog

This is the complete CLAT UG 2019 LLB Entrance question paper. The exam is conducted by the NLU CLAT Consortium for admissions to the 5 year LLB program in various NLUs across India.

 

The official answer keys are included in our Online Mock Test series, where you can get unlimited access to all the previous question papers and 100 Mock Tests.

 

Try the free demo mock tests before you decide to purchase.

CLAT PG 2025 - Comprehension Mock Tests Series & Previous Question Papers
  • Updated as per latest CLAT PG pattern
  • Overall there are 300+ comprehension passages - with 2300+ questions
  • 100 passages are provided as stand-alone mini mock tests
  • 120 passages are combined to form 10 full-length mock tests
  • 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023 and 2024 (New Pattern) Question papers included as mock tests
  • Answers include the reason or 'rationale' for better understanding
  • Order of the questions and answer choices are shuffled in every attempt for better practice
  • All the stand-alone passages & full length mocks can be repeated till you score 100%
  • The passages are of various lengths and complexities for better practice
  • Unlimited access & practice - valid for one year from date of purchase
  • Accessible 24 x 7 via Smart-Phone browsers and Desktops

Also included in the pack : (Useful for non-CLAT LLM entrance exams) :
  • 11 CLAT PG old pattern previous Papers - 2009 to 2019 (as mock tests)
  • 50 full-length old MCQ format mock tests (100 questions each)
  • 50 old pattern MCQ mini-mock tests (25 questions each)
  • Summarized overview of Important Jurisprudence topics (For Subjective & Objective questions)
  • Overview of all Constitutional Amendments
  • All Tests & Previous Papers are timed and have Negative marking for realistic simulation
  • Questions & Answer Choices randomly shuffled in every attempt for better practice
  • More the 100 LawMint users were selected by various top NLUs in 2020, 2021, 2022 and 2023 - Including NLSIU, NALSAR, NLU-J, WBNUJS
  • Our users were also selected for the IIT KGP LLM, NLU Delhi (AILET PG) & DU LLM programs
CLAT PG 2021 Mock Test Series and Previous Question Papers

Authentic Feedback from previous LawMint users :

I got AIR 21 in CLAT PG. Thank you so much. Your mocks helped me a lot in my preparation 🙂 - Ayushi Jain

I have subscribed to your CLAT PG program and got AIR 36 in this year CLAT PG. I have also secured AIR 54 in AILET PG exam. I would like to thank you. Your mock paper really helps a lot - Shrashank Tripathi

I would like to thank you for the CLAT PG LLM COURSE. Practising mock tests there helped me in getting confidence and hence I was able to get AIR 45 in CLAT PG LLM - Akshay Awasthi

A year back, I relied on the IIT Kharagpur RGSOIPL mock test series by LawMint to prepare for my RGSOIPL entrance test. Few months back, I relied on your UGC NET Law series to prepare for UGC NET. I was the topper of the RGSOIPL entrance, and have cracked JRF in UGC NET. All thanks to LawMint - Anshuman Sahoo

"I got AIR 18 in CLAT PG and General Category rank 28 in AILET PG. I want to thank you for helping me practice well in controlled conditions from any place. It gave me a lot of confidence and I took the tests while travelling too. I also made it to IIT Kharagpur." - Vinodharani

"Lawmint has been of great help to me in securing AIR 25 in AILET PG and AIR 29 in CLAT PG examinations. The subjective and objective approach of the test series kept me up to date with the latest exam pattern." - Bhawna Nanda

"I, Nimmy Saira Zachariah joined you clat test series. I cleared AILET PG with 30th rank. Your test series were of immense help as it gave me clear idea of where my preparations stand thank you once again law mint." - Nimmy S Z

"Hey guys. Where do I start? If I thought that getting AIR 59 in Clat PG was it, then how wrong I was. With Lawmint now I have cracked UGC NET as well." - Joyanta Chakraborty
CLAT 2019 Question Paper Solved Answer Key Free PDF Download LawMint LLB