The share of agriculture in the GDP of India has declined over the years. Which of the following is not…
The continuous decline in agriculture's percentage share in India's GDP since independence is explained by: (1) much faster growth of the secondary (industrial) and tertiary…
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The share of agriculture in the GDP of India has declined over the years. Which of the following is not a correct reason for this ?
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Correct answer C
The continuous decline in agriculture's percentage share in India's GDP since independence is explained by: (1) much faster growth of the secondary (industrial) and tertiary (services) sectors , (2) relatively slow or stagnant growth in agricultural crop yields , and (3) low value addition and food processing in agricultural commodities compared to manufactured goods and services . In contrast, Indian agriculture has historically experienced surplus labour and disguised unemployment rather than a labour shortage; therefore, 'Educated rural youths are not opting for agriculture as an occupation' is not a valid macroeconomic reason for the declining GDP share of agriculture.
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UGC NET Economics