Odisha Civil Judge Prelims 2023 Question Paper with Answers

Match each Supreme Court case to its subject.

Case A. Additional District Magistrate, Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976)
Case B. M.S.M. Sharma v. Sri Krishna Sinha (1958)
Case C. R.C. Cooper v. Union of India (1970)
Case D. R.K. Garg v. Union of India (1981)

Topic I. Special Bearer Bonds
Topic II. Emergency-era habeas corpus
Topic III. Bank nationalisation
Topic IV. Publication in the Searchlight newspaper

In which 2010 decision did the Supreme Court explain that an FIR is not substantive evidence of its contents but can be used to corroborate the person who lodged it?

When section 190 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 applies to an offence committed by a member of an unlawful assembly, what must be established about another person for liability under that section?

Match each situation to its classification under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.

Situation A. A shopkeeper uses necessary force to stop a robber who threatens immediate serious injury and kills the robber. No public protection can be obtained in time.
Situation B. A six-year-old child causes another person’s death.
Situation C. An attacker causes death by intentionally inflicting an injury sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death. No exception applies.
Situation D. A defender acting in good faith exceeds an existing right of private defence and kills the aggressor without premeditation or an intention to do more harm than necessary.

Classification I. Culpable homicide falling within Exception 2 to section 101
Classification II. Murder under section 101
Classification III. No offence because of age
Classification IV. Justified exercise of private defence

Which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 fixes a minimum term of imprisonment when a person attempting to commit dacoity is armed with a deadly weapon?

A Judicial Magistrate of the first class convicts a person of several distinct offences at one trial under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023. Assume the offences allow sentences long enough to reach the limit. What is the maximum aggregate term of imprisonment the Magistrate may impose by ordering the sentences to run consecutively?

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, who may raise an objection before the executing court that property attached in execution is not liable to attachment?

Assume an aggrieved person satisfies the grounds for review under Order XLVII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Consider situation I, in which the Code allows an appeal from the decree or order but the person has filed none, and situation II, in which the Code allows no appeal from the decree or order. In which situation may the person apply for review under section 114?

In which decision did the Supreme Court, in an eviction dispute, explain that section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 requires a substantial question of law and that a perverse factual finding based on no evidence or irrelevant material can justify intervention?

Which provision of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 defines a shared household?

A woman relies on her past actual residence in a domestic relationship to show that premises were her shared household. Which statement reflects Satish Chander Ahuja v. Sneha Ahuja (2020) on section 2(s) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?

Section 3 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 lists forms of abuse. Consider form I, economic abuse, and form II, sexual abuse. Which of these does section 3 expressly include?

Match the provisions of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 with their subject matter.
Provisions
1. Section 6
2. Section 7
3. Section 9
4. Section 11
Subjects
I. Duties and functions of Protection Officers
II. Duties of Government
III. Duties of shelter homes
IV. Duties of medical facilities

In the absence of a contract to the contrary, which property defect must a seller disclose under section 55(1)(a) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

Assume a contractual benefit is an actionable claim and neither law nor the contract independently prohibits assignment. Which statement correctly describes limits on assignment without the other contracting party's consent?

Under section 19 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, what is the effect of a transferee's death before obtaining possession where the interest is already vested?

A mortgagee takes possession and may apply rents and profits toward the debt. The deed also allows the mortgagee to have the property sold on default. There is no absolute or ostensible sale to the mortgagee. How should the mortgage be classified under section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

Which pair consists entirely of items excluded from the preceding rules of Chapter VIII by section 137 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

Which sequence follows the definitions in section 2 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

Consider these statements under the Indian Contract Act, 1872.

I. Every agreement made without consideration is valid.

II. Every contract is an agreement, and only an agreement enforceable by law is a contract.

Which statements are correct?